The finding indicates to the nurse that the medication for peptic ulcer has been effective are Decreased abdominal pain, and Improved appetite, and digestion.
Propantheline bromide is an anticholinergic medicine that is commonly used to treat peptic ulcer infection. It works by decreasing stomach acid production and decreasing the motility of the gastrointestinal tract. The taking after finding indicates to the nurse that the medication has been effective:
Diminished stomach pain:One of the foremost common indications of peptic ulcer illness is stomach torment. In the event that the propantheline bromide is viable, the client ought to involve diminished stomach pain or distress. The nurse ought to evaluate the client's torment level sometime recently and after regulating the pharmaceutical to determine its viability.
Other signs which will demonstrate the adequacy of propantheline bromide in treating peptic ulcer infection incorporate:
Improved craving:Clients with peptic ulcer malady may involvement the misfortune of craving due to torment or distress. In case the medicine is viable, the client may have a progressed craving and be able to eat more comfortably.
Decreased sickness and vomiting:A few clients with peptic ulcer infection may involvement queasiness and heaving. In the event that the pharmaceutical is compelling, the client ought to involve diminish in these side effects.
Improved digestion:In the event that the medicine is effective, the client may involvement moved forward absorption, as the medicine makes a difference to diminish stomach corrosive generation and diminish gastrointestinal motility.
It's imperative for the nurse to closely screen the client's reaction to the medicine and to report any unfavorable impacts or changes in indications to the healthcare supplier.
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What is the difference between mania and hypomania?
Key differences between mania and hypomania are the duration of the episode, the degree of severity, and the level of impairment.
Mania is a state of abnormally elevated or irritable mood, energy, and activity levels that lasts for at least a week, and often requires hospitalization. People experiencing mania often have an inflated sense of self-esteem, engage in impulsive or risky behaviors, experience racing thoughts, have a decreased need for sleep, and can become extremely talkative or irritable.
Hypomania is a milder form of mania that lasts for at least four days and does not result in significant social or occupational impairment. People experiencing hypomania may have increased energy levels, feel more productive and creative, and experience a heightened sense of well-being, but they are generally able to maintain their daily functioning.
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Drug induced reactions vs. EBV and penicillin rash
Drug-induced reactions are caused by an adverse reaction to a medication or drug, while EBV and penicillin rashes are caused by an infection or allergic reaction.
Drug-induced reactions and EBV and penicillin rashes are two different types of conditions that can cause skin rashes. Drug-induced reactions can range from mild to severe and can be caused by a variety of medications, including antibiotics, chemotherapy drugs, and painkillers. The symptoms of drug-induced reactions can vary but typically include hives, itching, and swelling of the skin.
EBV and penicillin rashes are caused by a viral infection or an allergic reaction to penicillin. The rash typically appears several days after taking penicillin and may be accompanied by other symptoms such as fever, sore throat, and swollen lymph nodes.
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The complete question is:
Explain about drug-induced reactions vs. EBV and penicillin rash.
What causes antibiotic resistance?
Approximately what percentage of participants in Milgram's obedience experiments thought they delivered the maximum amount of shock possible
In Milgram's obedience experiments, approximately 65% of participants thought they delivered the maximum amount of shock possible. This option is not provided in your choices (A-E). However, the closest option to the actual percentage is (D) 60.
Milgram's study aimed to investigate the level of obedience to authority, particularly in a situation where participants were instructed to administer electric shocks to a "learner" who answered questions incorrectly. Unbeknownst to the participants, the shocks were not real, and the learner was an actor.
The results of the study were shocking, as it demonstrated that a high percentage of participants were willing to obey authority figures, even when it involved causing harm to others. This finding emphasized the importance of situational factors in determining human behavior and has been crucial in understanding how individuals may conform to authority even in morally questionable situations. Therefore the correct option is D
The Question was Incomplete, Find the full content below :
Approximately what percentage of participants in Milgram's obedience experiments thought they delivered the maximum amount of shock possible? (A) 0 (B) 20 (C) 40 (D) 60 …
Approximately what percentage of participants in Milgram's obedience experiments thought they delivered the maximum amount of shock possible?
(A) 0
(B) 20
(C) 40
(D) 60
(E) 80
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A client with hypothyroidism is prescribed levothyroxine 0.05 mg by mouth daily before breakfast. As the nurse gives the client the medication, the client states, "What dose am I getting? I've been taking 0.15 mg every day for years." Which action by the nurse is most appropriate?
The most appropriate action for the nurse in this situation is to hold the medication and verify the client's medication order with the healthcare provider before administering the medication.
It is important to ensure that the medication dosage is correct before administering it to the client, especially if the client is expressing concerns or confusion about the prescribed dose. In this case, the client's statement indicates that there may be a discrepancy between the prescribed dose and the dose that the client has been taking, which could lead to potential harm if not addressed.
The nurse should clarify the medication order with the healthcare provider and obtain the correct dose before administering the medication to the client. This will help to ensure that the client is receiving the appropriate treatment for their hypothyroidism and prevent any potential adverse effects from incorrect dosing.
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what is health promotion (nutrition): toddler (1-3 yrs)
Health promotion in nutrition for toddlers involves providing a balanced and varied diet, encouraging healthy eating habits, and creating a positive mealtime environment.
Health promotion in nutrition for toddlers aged 1-3 years is the process of ensuring that children in this age group receive a balanced and nutritious diet that meets their growth and developmental needs. This includes providing a variety of foods from different food groups, such as fruits, vegetables, grains, proteins, and dairy, as well as limiting the intake of foods high in sugar, salt, and saturated fat.
To promote optimal growth and development, toddlers should eat frequent small meals and snacks throughout the day, with the total daily calorie intake being spread evenly across these meals. It is also important to encourage children to drink plenty of water and limit juice intake to no more than 4-6 ounces per day.
Parents and caregivers can promote good nutrition in toddlers by modeling healthy eating habits themselves, providing a positive and relaxed mealtime environment, and involving children in meal planning and preparation.
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What are the causes of Hemolytic Anemia?
Red blood cells (RBCs) are prone to being destroyed by the body when it has hemolytic anaemia, which reduces their lifespan and the body's capacity to carry oxygen effectively.
Hemolytic anaemia may result from a number of factors, including:
In autoimmune hemolytic anaemia (AIHA), the immune system wrongly views the body's own RBCs as alien, leading to the production of antibodies that target and kill them. Depending on the ideal temperature for antibody binding, AIHA can be categorized as either warm autoimmune hemolytic anaemia (WAIHA) or cold autoimmune hemolytic anaemia (CAIHA).RBCs are destroyed as a result of a series of inherited disorders known as hereditary hemolytic anaemias. Examples include glucose-6-phosphate dehydrogenase (G6PD) deficiency, hereditary spherocytosis, and hereditary elliptocytosis.To know more about hemolytic anaemia
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The nurse is caring for a child with symptomatic aortic stenosis. Which instruction should be provided to the child and parents.
As a nurse caring for a child with symptomatic aortic stenosis, it is important to provide appropriate instructions to the child and parents to ensure that they understand the condition and how to manage it.
1. Explain the condition: Inform the child and parents that symptomatic aortic stenosis is a narrowing of the aortic valve opening, which restricts blood flow from the heart to the rest of the body. This can lead to symptoms such as chest pain, fatigue, and shortness of breath.
2. Monitor symptoms: Encourage the child and parents to keep track of any symptoms, such as dizziness, fainting, or chest pain, and report them to the healthcare provider promptly.
3. Regular check-ups: Advise the child and parents to attend regular follow-up appointments with their healthcare provider to monitor the condition and adjust treatments as necessary.
4. Medication adherence: Ensure the child and parents understand the importance of taking prescribed medications as directed to manage symptoms and prevent complications.
5. Activity restrictions: Depending on the severity of the stenosis, the healthcare provider may recommend limiting certain physical activities to prevent overexertion and protect the child's heart.
6. Emotional support: Offer resources and support for the child and parents to cope with the emotional aspects of living with a chronic condition.
By following these instructions, the child with symptomatic aortic stenosis and their parents can better manage the condition and maintain the child's overall health.
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What are the steps of the adolescent drug use evaluation
It's critical to remember that the precise evaluation procedure may change based on the healthcare professional, the environment, and the adolescent's unique needs.
The following steps are often included in a thorough evaluation:
Initial Assessment: The evaluation starts with an initial assessment, during which comprehensive information regarding the adolescent's physical and mental health, family history, social milieu, and any prior history of substance use is gathered. The adolescent and their family members may be questioned about this, and medical records and other pertinent documents may also be examined.
Physical Examination: To determine the adolescent's general health, including any indications of drug use or other underlying medical issues, a physical examination may be performed.
Adolescent drug use screening: The adolescent may undergo a drug test.
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what is expected age-appropriate activities: infant (birth-1 yr)
Babies of this age group can feel what they touch. They can play with blocks, dolls, and cars. They like to lift things and communicate. They should be enourcouged to use their hand. They can at this age identify the caregiving person. This identification can help in calming themselves when they come in and connect with a caregiver.
At the age of 10 to 12 months, the baby communicates and shows emotions like anger, love, and a smile. The parents should talk to babies and play with them at this age as they start to understand.
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Which distance is less critical? Well to drain field, drain field to water table, or drain field to bedrock
Of the distances mentioned, the distance from the drain field to the bedrock is generally considered to be the least critical.
This is because the bedrock is typically very stable and unlikely to shift or move, which means it poses little risk to the drain field. On the other hand, the distance from the drain field to the water table is typically considered the most critical, as a high water table can lead to flooding and contamination of the drain field. The distance from the well to the drain field is also important, as a poorly located drain field can lead to contamination of the well water. The reason for this is that maintaining an adequate distance between the drain field and the water table helps prevent potential contamination of the groundwater, which can have serious consequences for drinking water supplies and the environment.
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what is auscultatory sites for the heart: pulmonic
The pulmonic site is one of the four auscultatory sites for the heart and is located in the second left intercostal space along the sternal border. This site is where the second heart sound can be best heard, which is the sound of the pulmonic valve closing after blood is ejected from the right ventricle into the pulmonary artery.
Auscultation of the pulmonic site can provide valuable information about the functioning of the pulmonary valve and pulmonary circulation. Abnormalities in this area can indicate conditions such as pulmonary hypertension, pulmonary stenosis, or other structural abnormalities of the pulmonary valve. In addition to the pulmonic site, the other three auscultatory sites for the heart are the aortic site (second right intercostal space along the sternal border), the tricuspid site (fourth or fifth left intercostal space along the sternal border), and the mitral site (fifth intercostal space at the midclavicular line).
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the increase in systemic vascular resistance and decrease in venous capacitance that occur to counteract orthostatic changes are due to?
The increase in systemic vascular resistance and decrease in venous capacitance that occur to counteract orthostatic changes are due to the activation of the sympathetic nervous system.
When a person stands up, there is a sudden decrease in venous return to the heart due to gravity, which causes a decrease in cardiac output and blood pressure. To compensate, the sympathetic nervous system is activated, leading to vasoconstriction of the peripheral blood vessels, which increases systemic vascular resistance.
This results in an increase in blood pressure, which helps maintain perfusion to vital organs. At the same time, the sympathetic nervous system also causes venous vasoconstriction, which decreases venous capacitance and helps maintain a venous return to the heart.
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The chair would state: "The ayes have it the resolution is:
In a meeting or assembly where a vote is taken, the chair is responsible for announcing the results of the vote. If the majority of the members vote in favor of the resolution, the chair would state, "The ayes have it, the resolution is adopted.
" This phrase is used to inform the members of the outcome of the vote and to indicate that the resolution has been officially adopted. The use of parliamentary procedure helps to ensure that meetings are conducted in an orderly and efficient manner, and that all members have a fair opportunity to participate in the decision-making process.
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lesion of the 1st order neuron are caused by
Lesions or damage to the first-order neuron can be caused by a variety of factors, including physical trauma, infections, tumors, and autoimmune disorders.
Option (d)
The first-order neuron is responsible for transmitting sensory information from the periphery to the central nervous system, where it is processed and integrated to produce an appropriate response. This neuron is part of the somatosensory system, which includes all the nerves responsible for sensing touch, pressure, temperature, pain, and other sensations in the body.
Common symptoms of first-order neuron lesions include numbness, tingling, loss of sensation, and weakness in the affected part of the body. Treatment for first-order neuron lesions depends on the underlying cause and may involve medications, surgery, or other interventions. In some cases, rest and physical therapy may be sufficient to promote healing and recovery. In other cases, medications or surgery may be necessary to address the underlying condition or repair the damaged nerve.
Therefore, the correct answer is option (d)
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The question is incomplete, the complete question is:
lesion of the 1st order neuron are caused by
(a) physical trauma
(b) infections,
(c) autoimmune disorders.
(d) All of the above
what is health promotion (injury prevention-bodily harm): preschooler (3-6 yrs)
Health promotion, specifically in the context of injury prevention and bodily harm for preschoolers aged 3-6 years, involves implementing strategies and providing education to reduce the risk of injuries and accidents in this age group.
Health promotion for preschoolers (3-6 years) includes:
1. Providing a safe environment: Ensure that the physical environment where the children play and learn is free from hazards such as sharp objects, toxic materials, or tripping hazards.
2. Supervision: Proper adult supervision is crucial to prevent injuries in preschoolers. Adults should be attentive and actively watch children during playtime and other activities.
3. Teaching safety rules: Educate preschoolers about basic safety rules, such as not running with scissors, looking both ways before crossing the street, and being careful around hot objects.
4. Encouraging physical activity: Promote regular physical activity to improve overall health and strengthen the body, reducing the risk of injuries.
5. Providing age-appropriate equipment and toys: Use toys and equipment designed for preschoolers' developmental levels to minimize the risk of injury.
6. Modeling safe behaviors: Demonstrate safe practices to preschoolers by being a good role model.
In summary, health promotion for injury prevention and bodily harm in preschoolers (3-6 years) involves creating a safe environment, ensuring proper supervision, teaching safety rules, encouraging physical activity, providing age-appropriate equipment, and modeling safe behaviors.
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A client is suspected of having a pulmonary embolus. Which test should the nurse prepare the client for that is definitive?
The definitive test for diagnosing a pulmonary embolus is a pulmonary angiogram.
However, this test is invasive and carries some risks, so it is usually reserved for cases where other diagnostic tests are inconclusive or there is a need for urgent intervention. The most common diagnostic tests for pulmonary embolism include a CT pulmonary angiogram (CTPA) and a ventilation-perfusion (V/Q) scan. A CTPA uses a special dye and X-rays to create detailed images of the blood vessels in the lungs, while a V/Q scan uses a radioactive tracer and imaging techniques to evaluate the flow of air and blood in the lungs.
Both of these tests are non-invasive and can provide accurate information about the presence and location of a pulmonary embolus. Other diagnostic tests that may be used to evaluate for a pulmonary embolus include blood tests to measure levels of a substance called D-dimer, which can be elevated in the presence of a blood clot, and ultrasound or MRI imaging of the legs to evaluate for deep vein thrombosis (DVT), which can be a precursor to a pulmonary embolus.
The choice of diagnostic test will depend on the individual case, and should be determined in consultation with a medical professional.
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what drug can be used to enhance penicillin efficacy in certain clinical settings (penicillin resistance, gonorrhea, neurosyphilis)?
Answer:
In certain clinical settings where penicillin resistance is a concern, combination therapy with another antibiotic may be used to enhance the efficacy of penicillin. The following are some examples:
β-lactamase inhibitors: These drugs, such as clavulanic acid, sulbactam, and tazobactam, are often combined with penicillin to enhance its activity against β-lactamase-producing bacteria. β-lactamase is an enzyme produced by certain bacteria that can inactivate penicillin. By combining penicillin with a β-lactamase inhibitor, the efficacy of penicillin can be improved.
Macrolides: These antibiotics, such as azithromycin and erythromycin, may be combined with penicillin to treat penicillin-resistant Streptococcus pneumoniae infections.
Cephalosporins: These antibiotics, such as ceftriaxone, may be used in combination with penicillin to treat certain types of infections, such as neurosyphilis and gonorrhea.
It is important to note that the use of combination therapy should always be based on a careful assessment of the patient's medical history and individual circumstances, and should only be prescribed by a qualified healthcare provider.
what type of mole stains negative for p57 protein and specimen reveals edematous chorionic villi
Moles, also known as hydatidiform moles, are abnormal growths that can occur in the uterus during pregnancy.
There are two types of moles: complete and partial.
Complete moles are characterized by the absence of fetal tissue and the presence of abnormal chorionic villi, which are responsible for forming the placenta. Partial moles, on the other hand, have both fetal and placental tissue, but they are also abnormal.
In terms of pathology, a mole that stains negative for p57 protein and has edematous chorionic villi is likely a complete mole. The p57 protein is a marker for fetal tissue, and its absence suggests that the mole is not of fetal origin. Edematous chorionic villi, or villi that are swollen with fluid, are also characteristic of complete moles.
A negative p57 stain and edematous chorionic villi are just two pieces of information that can help support a diagnosis of a complete mole, but they are not definitive on their own.
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what is prevention education for risk of drowning in preschoolers and school-age children:
Several significant measures are included in the prevention education for the danger of drowning in preschoolers and school-aged children. Children should constantly be watched around water, and barriers should be put up around swimming pools and other water features.
Early swimming instruction is important, as is encouraging kids to use life jackets while having fun in the water. Along with teaching children about fundamental water safety guidelines like never swimming alone and staying away from drains or suction connections, it's also important to educate them about the risks associated with rough play and diving. Adults should also receive CPR training in case of emergency.
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How should you properly cook custard pies?
Properly cooking custard pies is essential because the custard, which contains eggs, needs to be fully cooked to avoid the risk of foodborne illness. Additionally, properly cooked custard pies have a smooth, creamy texture and a firm but delicate structure, making for a delicious and enjoyable dessert.
To properly cook custard pies, follow these steps:
1. Preheat the oven: Preheat your oven to the appropriate temperature specified in the recipe, usually around 350°F (175°C).
2. Prepare the pie crust: Roll out your pie crust and place it in a pie dish, trimming and crimping the edges as needed. If the recipe calls for it, pre-bake the crust according to the instructions.
3. Prepare the custard filling: In a bowl, whisk together the eggs, sugar, and other ingredients (such as milk or cream) specified in the recipe until smooth and well combined.
4. Strain the custard: To ensure a smooth filling, pour the custard mixture through a fine-mesh sieve to remove any lumps or bits of egg.
5. Fill the pie crust: Pour the strained custard into the prepared pie crust. Be careful not to overfill the crust, as the custard may expand slightly during baking.
6. Bake the pie: Place the pie on a baking sheet and transfer it to the preheated oven. Bake the custard pie for the time specified in the recipe, usually around 40-60 minutes, or until the custard is set but still slightly jiggly in the center.
7. Cool and serve: Remove the pie from the oven and let it cool completely on a wire rack. Once cooled, refrigerate the pie for a few hours or overnight to allow the custard to fully set. Slice and serve chilled.
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During the Problem Solving Process, what components of the first three steps are linked?
The first three steps of the problem-solving process involve identifying, defining, and analyzing the problem. These steps are closely linked, as they involve gathering information and developing a clear understanding of the problem.
The component of identifying the problem involves recognizing that there is an issue or challenge that needs to be addressed. This is followed by defining the problem, which involves clearly articulating the problem and identifying the scope and boundaries of the problem.
Once the problem has been defined, the next step is to analyze the problem. This involves gathering information and data to better understand the underlying causes and factors contributing to the problem.
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What does lower pKa do to drug activation time?
Lowering a drug's pKa (acidity) can result in a quicker activation time.
How does decreasing the pKa of a drug affect the time it takes for the drug to become activated?Lowering the pKa of a drug can decrease the activation time. This is because pKa is a measure of the acidity of a drug, and a lower pKa indicates a stronger acid. When a drug with a lower pKa is administered, it will tend to ionize more readily in the body, and the charged form of the drug will be more prevalent. The charged form of the drug may be more soluble in water and able to cross biological membranes more easily than the uncharged form. This means that the charged form may be able to reach its target site more quickly, resulting in a shorter activation time. However, it is important to note that there are many factors that can affect drug activation time, and pKa is just one of them.
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How many National HOSA Presidents have been from Tennessee?
There are four National HOSA Presidents have been from Tennessee.
HOSA (Health Occupations Students of America) is a national organization that aims to enhance the quality of healthcare education and promote career opportunities in the healthcare industry. HOSA is a student-led organization, and each year, a National HOSA President is elected to lead the organization.
Tennessee has a strong presence in HOSA, and over the years, many Tennessee students have been elected to the position of National HOSA President. Specifically, four individuals from Tennessee have served as National HOSA presidents. Tennessee's continued success in HOSA is a testament to the state's commitment to healthcare education and the opportunities available to students interested in pursuing careers in this field.
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Explain the process of starvation and how aging can be used to prevent it.
Starvation is a detrimental process involving the breakdown of bodily reserves to maintain vital functions. Caloric restriction without malnutrition, as an aging intervention, can help prevent starvation by promoting metabolic efficiency and improving overall health.
Starvation is a severe deficiency of essential nutrients due to insufficient food intake, leading to various health problems. The process begins when the body depletes its glycogen stores, and the liver starts converting fats into ketones for energy.
As starvation continues, the body begins to break down its protein reserves from muscles and organs for vital functions. This results in muscle wasting, weakened immunity, and impaired organ functions.
Aging, in this context, refers to the process of caloric restriction (CR) without malnutrition, which has shown potential in preventing starvation-related issues. CR is the reduction of calorie intake while maintaining optimal nutrient intake. Studies have shown that CR may slow down the aging process, reduce the risk of age-related diseases, and extend lifespan.
By reducing calorie intake and promoting metabolic efficiency, CR allows the body to use energy more effectively, thus reducing the negative impacts of starvation.
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One goal of networking is to
In order to connect, cooperate, and innovate, people and organizations need a communication infrastructure networking that is dependable, effective, and secure.
What are the advantages of networking?Keeping up with the most recent business trends and learning about your colleagues' business strategies may both be accomplished through networking. Access to fresh and important information is increased when there is a large network of knowledgeable, connected connections.
What does networking have to offer?The purpose of networking is to make connections with other businessmen in order to create collaborative and expert relationships. In addition to client recommendations, job offers, event sponsorships, milestone recognition, and even educational chances, relationships can be advantageous for young professionals.
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Question:
One goal of networking is to facilitate communication and information sharing among individuals, devices, or organizations over a distance.
What does it mean for a chapter to be a member of the HOSA 100 club?
To be a member of the HOSA 100 Club, a chapter must meet certain requirements, including having a minimum of 100 members, participating in community service projects, promoting HOSA to local schools and communities, and attending state and national HOSA events.
The HOSA 100 Club is a recognition program of the Health Occupations Students of America (HOSA) that honors chapters for their outstanding work and achievement.
To be a member of the HOSA 100 Club, a chapter must meet certain requirements, including having a minimum of 100 members, participating in community service projects, promoting HOSA to local schools and communities, attending state and national HOSA events, and maintaining active communication with the HOSA state and national offices.
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class of pharmaceuticals compounded by mechanical means
The class of pharmaceuticals compounded by mechanical means is called "pharmaceutical formulations." These are prepared by combining various drugs and excipients through processes like blending, granulation, and compression to create dosage forms such as tablets, capsules, and powders for administration.
The class of pharmaceuticals compounded by mechanical means refers to medications that are prepared using mechanical processes, such as mixing or grinding. Examples of these types of medications include tablets, capsules, and powders. These pharmaceuticals are typically manufactured in large quantities using automated equipment, although they may also be prepared manually in smaller quantities by pharmacists or other healthcare professionals. It is important to note that these medications may have different formulations and properties than those that are produced using other methods, such as chemical synthesis or biological processes.
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T/F One stride is equal to two steps
The given statement "One stride is equal to two steps" is false because one stride is half of a step (as a step consists of two strides, one for each foot).
One stride is typically defined as the distance between successive placements of the same foot. It can vary from person to person and depends on factors such as height and leg length.On the other hand, a step is the movement of one foot to another location, and it typically involves two strides (one with each foot).So, one stride is equal to half of a step, not two steps. Therefore, it would be more accurate to say that two strides are equal to one step, not the other way around.Learn more about stride: https://brainly.com/question/26767113
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what phase of the cell cycle does nucleotide excision repair occur in
Nucleotide excision repair occur in S phase of the cell cycle.
Nucleotide excision repair (NER), base excision repair (BER), and DNA mismatch repair are the three excision repair processes that can fix single stranded DNA damage (MMR). The BER pathway can identify particular non-bulky lesions in DNA, but it can only repair damaged bases that have had specific glycosylases remove them. Similar to this, the MMR pathway only targets Watson-Crick base pairs that are mismatched.
The removal of DNA damage brought on by ultraviolet radiation is accomplished by the crucial excision mechanism known as nucleotide excision repair (NER) (UV). Bulky DNA adducts are produced as a result of UV DNA damage; the majority of these adducts are thymine dimers and 6,4-photoproducts. Once the damage is recognized, the brief section of single-stranded DNA that contains the lesion is removed. The single-stranded DNA that is still intact is used as a template by DNA polymerase to create a brief complimentary sequence.
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