To facilitate diaphragmatic breathing while supine, the individual should lie on their back with their knees bent and feet flat on the surface. The hands can be placed on the belly to help feel the rise and fall of the abdomen with each breath. The individual should then focus on breathing slowly and deeply, allowing the belly to rise as they inhale and fall as they exhale.
Diaphragmatic breathing is a technique that can help individuals breathe more deeply and efficiently by engaging the diaphragm, the primary muscle responsible for breathing. This technique can be particularly helpful for individuals with respiratory conditions such as chronic obstructive pulmonary disease (COPD), asthma, or anxiety, as well as individuals recovering from surgery or illness. Diaphragmatic breathing can be taught by a variety of healthcare providers, including physical therapists, respiratory therapists, and yoga or meditation instructors. It may also be incorporated into a variety of treatment plans, including pulmonary rehabilitation, stress reduction programs, and pain management.
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what vertebrae levels are the kidneys found out?which kidney is lower?
The kidneys are typically found between the 12th thoracic vertebra (T₁₂) and the 3rd lumbar vertebra (L₃) in the back, with the right kidney being slightly lower than the left kidney due to the position of the liver.
The kidneys are located in the retroperitoneal space, which is located behind the peritoneum (the lining of the abdominal cavity).
The right kidney is usually located between the 12th thoracic vertebra (T₁₂) and the 3rd lumbar vertebra (L₃), and the left kidney is usually located between the 11th thoracic vertebra (T₁₁) and the 3rd lumbar vertebra (L₃).
This slight difference in position is due to the anatomical relationship between the right kidney and the liver, which pushes the right kidney slightly lower in the abdominal cavity compared to the left kidney.
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■ Because adolescents fear disclosure of confidential information, they may avoid seeking health care. When adolescents have a reportable disease, it is important to inform them that confidentiality cannot be maintained, as a report must be made to a public health agency.
The given statement is true because Adolescents often fear disclosure of confidential information and may avoid seeking health care, including testing and treatment for reportable diseases.
In some cases, healthcare providers are legally obligated to report certain diseases to public health agencies to prevent their spread and ensure public safety. This obligation overrides the need for confidentiality in these cases. Therefore, it is important to inform adolescents that confidentiality cannot be maintained when they have a reportable disease, and a report must be made to a public health agency.
It is crucial to explain the reasons for the report and the consequences of non-reporting. This approach helps build trust and foster open communication with adolescents, empowering them to take an active role in their healthcare decisions. Moreover, healthcare providers should follow the ethical and legal standards of their profession when sharing confidential information to ensure the protection of adolescents' rights and privacy.
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health care professionals have an ethical duty to ensure patient safety. safe technologies are increasingly being implemented throughout health care organizations to improve patient safety, streamline work processes, and improve the quality and outcomes of health care delivery. in a 2-3 page paper, you will discuss one (1) technology safety initiative that has been or can be implemented in a health care setting to improve patient safety and work processes, and improve patient outcomes. you may use one of the following examples or chose your own. some examples are: smart pumps bar code medication administration clinical decision support systems rfid technology smart rooms wearable technology robotics 1. describe the technology and its users. 2. what data is gathered using the technology? 3. what are the benefits to patient safety, workflow processes and patient outcomes? 4. what are the cons of this technology? 5. do the benefits outweigh the cons? provide rationale 6. describe the role of the nurse leader in selecting, implementing and sustaining technology. provide 2 examples of effectiveness of the technology of patient safety, workflow processes, and patient outcomes.
One technology safety initiative that has been widely implemented in healthcare settings is barcode medication administration (BCMA). BCMA is a computerized system that uses barcodes to verify the identity of patients and medications before administering them.
BCMA works by having the nurse scan the patient's wristband and the medication barcodes before administering the medication. The system checks the patient's identity and medication information against the electronic health record (EHR) to ensure that the right medication is given to the right patient in the right dose and at the right time.
Implementing BCMA in healthcare settings can have several benefits. First, it can improve patient safety by reducing medication errors. Second, it can streamline work processes by reducing the time and effort required for medication administration and documentation.
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The complete question is:
Health care professionals have an ethical duty to ensure patient safety. Safe technologies are increasingly being implemented throughout healthcare organizations to improve patient safety, streamline work processes, and improve the quality and outcomes of healthcare delivery. In a 2-3 page paper, you will discuss:
Technology safety initiative that has been or can be implemented in a health care setting to improve patient safety and work processes and improve patient outcomes. you may use one of the following examples or choose your own. some examples are smart pumps bar code medication administration clinical decision support systems RFID technology smart rooms wearable technology robotics.
If you do not definitely feel a pulse within 10 seconds, what should you do?
If you do not definitely feel a pulse within 10 seconds, you should immediately begin CPR to provide necessary chest compressions and rescue breaths to the individual. Acting quickly is crucial in such situations to maximize the chances of survival and minimize potential damage due to lack of oxygen.
If you do not definitely feel a pulse within 10 seconds, you should immediately begin performing cardiopulmonary resuscitation (CPR) or activate the emergency response system. The absence of a pulse may indicate cardiac arrest, which is a life-threatening emergency. CPR involves chest compressions and rescue breaths to manually circulate blood and oxygen to the brain and vital organs until advanced medical help arrives. Time is critical in a cardiac arrest, and prompt action can greatly improve the chances of survival. Therefore, it is important to act quickly and decisively if you suspect that someone may be experiencing a cardiac emergency.
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MVC in a male, pelvic fracture, mild abdominal pain. No blood at meatus, catheter inserted with no resistance, but frank blood comes out. What part of urogenital tract is injury?
In a male who experienced an MVC with a pelvic fracture and mild abdominal pain, and had a catheter inserted with no resistance but frank blood comes out, the likely injured part of the urogenital tract is the posterior urethra.
MVC (motor vehicle collision) can cause significant trauma to the pelvic region, and a pelvic fracture increases the risk of injury to the urogenital tract. Although there's no blood at the meatus and no resistance during catheter insertion, the presence of frank blood upon catheterization suggests an injury to the posterior urethra, which is part of the urethra that passes through the prostate and connects to the bladder. It is more susceptible to injury in the case of a pelvic fracture.
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What does the Joint Commission recommend with handoff report method?
The Joint Commission recommends that healthcare organizations use standardized communication methods and protocols, including structured tools or checklists, for handoff reports to ensure patient safety during transitions of care.
What Joint Commission recommends?The Joint Commission recommends that healthcare organizations use standardized communication methods and protocols for handoff reports, including the use of structured tools or checklists, to ensure that critical information is accurately conveyed and that patient safety is not compromised during transitions of care.
Additionally, the Joint Commission emphasizes the importance of active communication and engagement between the healthcare providers giving and receiving the handoff report, including the opportunity for the receiving provider to ask questions and clarify any uncertainties. The Joint Commission also encourages healthcare organizations to provide training and education for healthcare providers on effective communication skills and the use of standardized handoff protocols.
By implementing these recommendations, healthcare organizations can improve the quality and safety of care during transitions of care and reduce the risk of adverse events or errors.
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the client has a sustained increased intracranial pressure (icp) of 20 mm hg. which client position would be most appropriate?
The most appropriate client position for sustained increased intracranial pressure (ICP) of 20 mmHg is the head of the bed elevated 30-45 degrees.
Elevating the head of the bed to 30-45 degrees helps to promote venous drainage from the brain and reduce intracranial pressure. This position also helps to prevent the Valsalva maneuver, which increases ICP, and helps to maintain proper alignment of the head, neck, and spine. However, if the client has a spinal cord injury or another condition that contraindicates elevating the head of the bed, the healthcare provider should be consulted for the appropriate positioning.
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in centric occlusion, the position of the mandible in relation to the maxilla is primarily determined by
In centric occlusion, the position of the mandible in relation to the maxilla is primarily determined by the intercuspation of the teeth. This means that the upper and lower teeth fit together in their most stable and harmonious position, allowing for optimal function and comfort. The maxilla (upper jaw) and the mandible (lower jaw) align properly, leading to a balanced and efficient bite.
In centric occlusion, the position of the mandible in relation to the maxilla is primarily determined by the contact between the upper and lower teeth in the most stable and functional position of the jaw. This position is considered the centric occlusion, which is also known as the habitual or maximum intercuspation position.
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Which design type is similar to experimental design but does not meet one of the other essential components of experimental design, lacking either randomization or a control group?
The design type that is similar to experimental design but does not meet one of the other essential components, lacking either randomization or a control group, is called a "quasi-experimental design."
Quasi-experimental designs share some characteristics with experimental designs, such as manipulation of an independent variable, but they do not fully satisfy the criteria for a true experimental design due to the absence of randomization or a control group. Quasi-experimental designs attempt to mimic experimental designs but lack either randomization or a control group, making it less rigorous than true experimental designs.
Experimental design create a set of procedures to systematically test a hypothesis. A good experimental design requires a strong understanding of the system you are studying.
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where do the ducts of the bulbourethral glands open into?
Males have a pair of tiny exocrine glands called bulbourethral glands that are situated close to the base of the Male genital . During sexual excitement, these glands emit a transparent, sticky fluid.
The fluid washes away any remaining pee or other acidic compounds in the urethra, neutralises acidic urine, and protects the sperm by lubricating the urethra. The fluid is discharged during ejaculation through the openings of the bulbourethral glands' ducts into the urethra. A transparent, slightly alkaline fluid that contains mucus, water, and electrolytes is the secretion of the bulbourethral gland. By creating an environment that is favourable for sperm survival and movement, this fluid contributes in the preparation of the urethra for the passage of semen.
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where do you put your stethoscope to listen to the middle lobe of the lung
To listen to the middle lobe of the lung, place the stethoscope on the right side of the chest between the fourth and sixth rib in the midclavicular line.
The middle lobe of the right lung is located in this region, and breath sounds can be heard most clearly by auscultating at this point. It is important to instruct the patient to breathe deeply and evenly through their mouth during auscultation to ensure accurate assessment of lung sounds.
The middle lobe of the left lung is not as well-defined as that of the right lung, and it is often difficult to isolate breath sounds specifically to this region. However, it is generally located in the same general region as that of the right lung.
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the home health nurse visits a client with hand osteoarthritis whose health care provider has recommended topical capsaicin for pain relief. which instruction about capsaicin should the nurse provide the client?
The nurse should instruct the client to apply topical capsaicin to the affected area 3-4 times per day as directed, to avoid applying the medication on broken skin, and to wash their hands thoroughly after use.
Capsaicin is a topical medication that can be used to relieve pain associated with hand osteoarthritis. The nurse should instruct the client to apply the medication to the affected area 3-4 times per day, as directed by their healthcare provider.
It is important for the client to avoid applying the medication to broken or irritated skin as it can cause further irritation. The nurse should also advise the client to wash their hands thoroughly after each use of the medication to avoid accidental contact with sensitive areas, such as the eyes or mouth.
Overall, the nurse should instruct the client to apply topical capsaicin to the affected area 3-4 times per day as directed, to avoid applying the medication on broken skin, and to wash their hands thoroughly after use.
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on the working side in an ideal occlusion the mesiolingual cusp of maxillary first molar travels over the opposing...
Hi! I'd be happy to help with your question about occlusion involving the mesiolingual cusp of the maxillary first molar.
In an ideal occlusion, the working side refers to the side where the teeth are in contact during the chewing movement. When considering the mesiolingual cusp of the maxillary first molar on the working side, it is essential to understand how it interacts with the opposing mandibular teeth.
The mesiolingual cusp of the maxillary first molar is an essential component for maintaining proper occlusal function. In ideal occlusion, this cusp travels over the opposing mandibular first molar's central groove, in a position between the mesiobuccal and distobuccal cusps. This interaction allows for efficient chewing and grinding of food, as the maxillary first molar's mesiolingual cusp slides smoothly over the mandibular first molar's grooves during mastication.
This functional relationship between the mesiolingual cusp of the maxillary first molar and the mandibular first molar is crucial for maintaining the overall stability of the dentition. The occlusal relationship also helps to distribute the biting forces evenly throughout the dental arch, preventing undue stress on individual teeth and promoting overall oral health.
In summary, in an ideal occlusion, the mesiolingual cusp of the maxillary first molar travels over the opposing mandibular first molar's central groove, effectively interacting with the mandibular first molar's mesiobuccal and distobuccal cusps. This relationship ensures efficient chewing function, proper force distribution, and overall dental stability.
Pharmaceutical compounding may involve the following ingredient(s):
Pharmaceutical compounding may involve one or more of the following ingredients: active pharmaceutical ingredients (APIs), excipients (fillers, binders, lubricants), flavors, preservatives, coloring agents, and other additives.
Compounding pharmacies may also use specialized equipment and technology to ensure accurate and precise measurements and formulations of these ingredients.
There are two types of compounding in pharmacy: non-sterile compounding and sterile compounding.
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What should the first-line Treatment of endometrial hyperplasia WITHOUT atypia be?
The first-line treatment of endometrial hyperplasia without atypia is typically hormonal therapy with progestins.
Progestins are hormones that can help to regulate the growth of the endometrium, which is the lining of the uterus. By using progestins, the overgrowth of the endometrium that is associated with hyperplasia can be reversed or prevented, reducing the risk of developing endometrial cancer.
Progestin therapy can be administered in different forms, including oral pills, injections, or intrauterine devices (IUDs). The specific dosage and duration of treatment will depend on the severity and type of endometrial hyperplasia, as well as other factors such as the patient's age and medical history. In some cases, surgical interventions such as hysteroscopy or dilation and curettage (D&C) may be necessary to remove abnormal tissue or to evaluate for the presence of atypia.
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most likely reproductive complication of receiving systemic chemo?
Infertility is the most common reproductive complication that arises after receiving systemic chemo.
Infertility is the inability to reproduce. This may occur in males or females. Infertility in males may be due insufficient production of sperms or production of incompetent sperms. In females, infertility can be due to lack of ovulation or inability to implant the fertilized ovum.
Systemic chemo is the form of chemotherapy where the cancer drugs are injected to the body through veins or consumed orally through mouth. The drug therefore is present in the whole body as it travels through the bloodstream. Thus systemic chemo is efficient in treating malignant tumors.
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How long may a Schedule Class II drug be refilled?
A Schedule Class II drug cannot be refilled. According to the DEA regulations, these drugs require a new prescription for each dispensation due to their high potential for abuse and addiction.
When should a Schedule class II drug be refilled?
The refill time for a Schedule Class II drug varies depending on the state laws and the prescription written by the doctor. However, it is important to note that Schedule II drugs are considered highly addictive and have a high potential for abuse.
Therefore, most states limit the number of refills allowed and require a new prescription from the doctor each time the medication is needed. In general, a Schedule Class II drug may be refilled no more than five times within six months from the date of the initial prescription. After that, a new prescription is required.
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Steps to objectively evaluate the degree of success in achieving outcomes of care:
The steps to objectively evaluate the degree of success in achieving outcomes of care are:
Define the outcome(s) of interest.Determine appropriate measures to assess the outcomes.Collect data on the outcomes using the selected measures.Analyze the data to determine if the outcomes were achieved.Interpret the results and make conclusions about the success of the care provided.In order to evaluate the degree of success in achieving outcomes of care, it is necessary to define the outcomes that are of interest and select appropriate measures to assess those outcomes. Data is then collected using the selected measures and analyzed to determine if the desired outcomes were achieved.
The results are interpreted and conclusions are made about the success of the care provided. This process is an essential component of evidence-based practice and quality improvement initiatives in healthcare.
Overall, The steps to objectively evaluate the degree of success in achieving outcomes of care are Define the outcome(s) of interest, Determine appropriate measures to assess the outcomes, Collect data on the outcomes using the selected measures, Analyze the data to determine if the outcomes were achieved, Interpret the results and make conclusions about the success of the care provided.
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What is Auditing?
A) Objective, ongoing review of records to determine the degree to which quality improvement standards are met.
B) Investigation by TJC for fraud
C) Employee performance evaluations
D) Research on "Never Events".
An auditing is a study of a company's annual report-presented financial report by a third party that is not associated with the company. The correct option is A) Objective, ongoing review of records to determine the degree to which quality improvement standards are met.
A) Objective, ongoing review of records to determine the degree to which quality improvement standards are met. Auditing is a process of reviewing records, systems, and processes to evaluate the effectiveness and compliance with established standards and regulations. It helps to identify areas for improvement and ensure that the organization is meeting quality improvement goals. Auditing is an essential tool for healthcare organizations to assess their performance, identify potential risks and prevent "Never Events." The Joint Commission (TJC) conducts audits to ensure compliance with their standards and to identify potential areas of concern related to fraud.
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The parents of a 10-year-old girl who is diagnosed and hospitalized with a terminal brain tumor ask that she not be told she is dying. How can the nurse communicate with this family?
The parents of a 10-year-old girl who is diagnosed and hospitalized with a terminal brain tumor ask that she not be told she is dying. As a nurse, it is important to respect the parent's wishes regarding their daughter's diagnosis. The nurse can communicate with the family by acknowledging their concerns and discussing the importance of the patient's treatment plan.
Here's how the nurse can communicate with the family:
1. Begin by expressing empathy and understanding for the family's difficult situation and their concerns about not telling the child about her terminal brain tumor.
2. Discuss the various treatment options available for brain tumors, such as surgery, radiation therapy, and chemotherapy, while keeping the focus on providing comfort and maintaining the child's quality of life.
3. Address the family's concerns by offering to use age-appropriate language and focusing on the child's symptoms and treatment plan, rather than the terminal aspect of her condition.
4. Encourage open communication between the family and healthcare team, emphasizing the importance of trust and collaboration in supporting the child's well-being.
5. Offer resources and support services, such as counseling or support groups, to help the family navigate the emotional challenges of dealing with their child's illness.
By following these steps, the nurse can maintain a professional, empathetic, and supportive approach while respecting the family's wishes not to inform the child about her terminal brain tumor.
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A client with Crohn's disease is admitted to a semiprivate room late in the afternoon. The next day, the client reports that he was not able to sleep during the night because the hallway lights bothered him. He asks that he be moved to a bed next to a window. What should the nurse do?
The nurse should assess the client's condition and determine if the client's request is feasible. If a bed next to the window is available and the client's condition is stable, the nurse can move the client.
However, if there are no beds available, the nurse should discuss other options with the client, such as using eye masks or earplugs.
The nurse should also assess the client's sleep pattern, as insomnia can be a symptom of Crohn's disease, and implement measures to promote sleep hygiene, such as avoiding caffeine and stimulating activities before bedtime.
Additionally, the nurse should collaborate with other members of the healthcare team to address the client's concerns about the hallway lights and ensure that the client's room is conducive to rest and recovery.
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MOHO 1.) Theoretical basis?2.) Main Points?3.) Assumptions?4.) Typical treatments?
MOHO refers to the Model of Human Occupation, which is a widely used occupational therapy framework.
1. Theoretical basis: MOHO is based on a combination of several theories, including social psychology, occupational therapy, and occupational science.
2. Main points: The MOHO model proposes that occupational behavior is a result of three interrelated components: volition, habituation, and performance capacity. Volition refers to a person's motivation, values, and interests.
3. Assumptions: MOHO assumes that individuals are motivated to engage in meaningful occupations, and that their occupational behavior is influenced by various environmental and personal factors.
4. Typical treatments: MOHO can be used to guide occupational therapy interventions, which may include assessing and addressing a person's volition, habituation, and performance capacity.
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True or False updating the problem list is a way to meet Meaningful Use?
True. Updating the problem list is one of the requirements for meeting Meaningful Use criteria.
In order to meet Meaningful Use, healthcare providers need to demonstrate that they are using electronic health records (EHRs) in a meaningful way.
This includes maintaining an up-to-date problem list for each patient, which is a list of all current and active medical conditions.
The EHR should have the capability to allow clinicians to update the problem list as needed, ensuring that it remains accurate and reflects the patient's current health status.
So, in conclusion, updating the problem list is a way to meet Meaningful Use.
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what makes up the lesser omentum?what is contained in these structures?
The lesser omentum is a double layer of peritoneum that connects the lesser curvature of the stomach and the proximal part of the duodenum to the liver. It is made up of two parts: the hepatogastric ligament and the hepatoduodenal ligament.
Hepatogastric ligament: This is the larger part of the lesser omentum, extending from the liver to the lesser curvature of the stomach. It contains the right and left gastric arteries and the gastric veins.Hepatoduodenal ligament: This is the smaller part of the lesser omentum, extending from the liver to the duodenum. It contains the hepatic artery, the portal vein, and the common bile duct.The lesser omentum helps to anchor the liver to the stomach and the duodenum, and it contains important blood vessels and ducts that supply and drain the liver and the gastrointestinal tract.
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TMJ: Osteology- the mandibular condyle shape is variable, but most commonly it is (convex/flat/angular/rounded) shape
The shape of the mandibular condyle can vary, but the most common shape is a convex or rounded shape. However, in some individuals, the mandibular condyle can be flat, angular, or even irregular in shape.
TMJ or temporomandibular joint is a joint that connects the mandible or jawbone to the temporal bone of the skull. The mandibular condyle is the rounded surface of the mandible that articulates with the temporal bone to form the TMJ.
The shape of the mandibular condyle can be variable, but most commonly it is a convex shape. This rounded, smooth surface of the mandibular condyle articulates with the glenoid fossa of the temporal bone to form the temporomandibular joint (TMJ). The condyle's convex shape allows for smooth jaw movements during functions such as chewing, speaking, and yawning.
However, in some cases, a flat or angular mandibular condyle may be present, which can contribute to TMJ disorders and related symptoms.
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which medication to treat osteoporosis would be contraindicated for a client who has a history of renal calculi? hesi
Bisphosphonates are commonly used medications to treat osteoporosis. However, they can sometimes cause kidney damage and may be contraindicated in the clients with a history of the renal calculi (kidney stones).
Therefore, alternative medications may need to be considered in such cases. Other options include selective estrogen receptor modulators (SERMs), denosumab, and teriparatide. The choice of medication depends on factors such as the severity of osteoporosis, the client's medical history, and any other medications they are taking. It is essential to consult with a healthcare provider to determine the appropriate medication for a person with a history of the renal calculi.
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During which phase of a full clinical trial would an efficacy study be done?
An efficacy study is typically conducted during Phase III of a full clinical trial.
Phase III trials are designed to assess the effectiveness of a new treatment compared to existing treatments or placebo. Efficacy studies are crucial in determining whether a new treatment is effective in treating the targeted disease or condition, and they often involve large patient populations to generate statistically significant data. Once the efficacy study is completed, the results can be used to support regulatory approval of the new treatment.
Overall, efficacy studies are a critical component of the drug development process, providing essential information about a treatment's potential benefits and risks before it is made available to the public.
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a child is prescribed tetracycline. the nurse understands which possible medication related reaction is associated with this medication?
Tetracycline is a type of antibiotic frequently prescribed for both children and adults to treat bacterial infections. But it has the potential to have negative reactions or side effects, just like any medication.
Tetracycline-related adverse drug reactions that could occur include:
Tetracycline's gastrointestinal side effects, which include nausea, vomiting, diarrhea, and abdominal discomfort, might upset the stomach.When exposed to sunlight or UV rays, tetracycline might enhance a person's sensitivity to light, which can result in skin rashes, sunburns, or other skin responses.Tetracycline use during tooth growth (often up to age 8) can cause teeth to become permanently stained, turning them a shade of yellow, grey, or brown.Tetracycline can alter the body's normal microbial balance, which can cause an overgrowth of the fungus Candida, or candidiasis.Like any medicine, tetracycline has the potential to induce allergic reactions, which can range from minor skin rashes to serious allergic responses like anaphylaxis, a condition that can be fatal.It's critical to take tetracycline exactly as prescribed by your doctor, reporting any negative reactions or side effects as soon as possible. It is crucial to keep a watchful eye out for any symptoms of side effects in children who have been taken tetracycline and to seek medical help if you have any concerns.To know more about Tetracycline
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What is the most common mechanism of dz in pt with epilepsy
Electrical discharges from brain neurons that are excessive and abnormally frequent are the most common mechanism of illness in epilepsy sufferers.
The epilepsy is the condition of neurological injury that arises due to the conditions such as brain damage, stroke in heart or gene relates abnormalities.
Synaptic transmission changes, ion channel changes, or irregular network activity can all contribute to this, but they all eventually result in abnormal electrical discharges that interrupt regular brain activity and produce seizures.
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Major mechanical complications of MI? (3)
Major mechanical complications of myocardial infarction (MI) include cardiogenic shock, ventricular aneurysm, papillary muscle rupture, cardiac tamponade, and ventricular septal defect.
Cardiogenic shock is a severe form of heart failure which results in inadequate blood supply to organs and tissues leading to multi-organ failure. Ventricular aneurysm occurs when the left ventricle weakens after damage from MI and forms an abnormal bulge. Papillary muscle rupture causes the valve leaflets to open abnormally leading to mitral
regurgitation. Cardiac tamponade is a life-threatening condition caused by fluid accumulation in the pericardium which can result in decreased cardiac output. Ventricular septal defect occurs when the septum separating left and right ventricles is damaged causing blood flow between the two chambers resulting in volume overload.
Question is incomplete the complete question is
What are the Major mechanical complications of MI?
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