the following are to understand about demand patterns and their underlying causes, except: a. predictable cycle b. cyclical variations c. competitors demand d. random change

Answers

Answer 1

The answer is c. competitors demand. Understanding demand patterns and their underlying causes is important, with the exception of rival demand.

In a demand-driven value network (DDVN), demand pattern analysis is a new discipline within supply chain management (SCM) that analyses customer and demand data to more accurately estimate demand over a range of time frames.

Different values of the various characteristics, including base, slope, season, and noise, affect the service level and overall cost. These demand types include constant, seasonal, seasonal with growing trend, seasonal with declining trend, and seasonal with no trend.

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Related Questions

mogul company ships merchandise to ski outfit in a consignment arrangement. the arrangement specifies that ski outfit will attempt to sell the merchandise, and in return, mogul will pay to ski outfit a commission of 25% of the selling price on any merchandise sold. during the year, mogul ships inventory with a cost of $96,000 to ski outfit and pays shipping costs of $19,200. by the end of the year, $76,000 of the merchandise has been sold to customers for a total of $101,000. mogul allocates $14,000 of the shipping costs to inventory sold and the other $5,200 to inventory not sold. mogul also paid advertising costs during the year of $18,000. what amount of inventory will mogul report at year end?

Answers

Mogul will report $72,000 of inventory at year end. The calculation involves subtracting the cost of inventory sold ($72,000) from the total cost of inventory shipped to Ski Outfit ($96,000).

The cost of inventory shipped to ski outfit is $96,000, and $76,000 worth of merchandise has been sold. Therefore, $20,000 ($96,000 - $76,000) worth of inventory is still unsold and is reported as inventory at the end of the year.

Mogul Company allocates $14,000 of the shipping costs to inventory sold and $5,200 to inventory not sold. Therefore, the cost of the inventory at the end of the year will be $20,000 (unsold inventory) + $14,000 (allocated shipping costs) = $34,000.

The commission paid to Ski Outfit on the merchandise sold is $25,250 ($101,000 * 0.25). This commission is reported as selling expenses and is deducted from the revenue. The remaining revenue is $75,750 ($101,000 - $25,250).

Mogul Company's gross profit on the consignment arrangement is $39,550 ($75,750 - $36,200).

Mogul Company's advertising costs are also deducted from the revenue, resulting in a net income of $21,550 ($39,550 - $18,000).

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what is the relationship between price elasticity and position on the demand curve? for example, as you move up the demand curve to higher prices and lower quantities, what happens to the measured elasticity? how would you explain that?

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Elasticities are calculated as percentages; the more the demand curve moves, the less elastic the curve is. When prices rise, demand for a product with a high price elasticity of demand will drop significantly. The downward-sloping demand curve appears flatter.

The product with high demand elasticity, and the quantity demanded changes significantly with changes in price. The amount by which the quantity demanded alters in response to a price change is measured by the price elasticity of demand. The degree to which the amount demanded alters in response to variations in consumer income is measured by the income elasticity of demand.

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All things being equal, does a national currency tend to rise or fall when a central bank intervenes and buys up that currency?

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All things being equal, when a central bank intervenes and buys up a national currency, it tends to rise in value. This is because the increased demand for currency from the central bank increases its value in the foreign exchange market. However, the impact of central bank intervention on currency value can be influenced by various factors such as market sentiment, economic conditions, and the level of intervention.

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On your date last Friday, you wanted to make hot chocolate but realized you were out of hot chocolate mix. What part of the consumer behavior process were you in? evaluation information search realization problem recognition coco withdraws

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Realizing the lack of hot chocolate mix triggered the problem recognition stage of the consumer behavior process, leading to the search for alternative solutions. Understanding this process is essential for marketers to meet the needs of their target audience.

In this scenario, the part of the consumer behavior process that I was in when I realized I was out of the hot chocolate mix is problem recognition. Problem recognition is the first step in the consumer behavior process, where consumers identify a need or a problem that needs to be solved. In this case, the need was to make hot chocolate, but the problem was the lack of a hot chocolate mix.

The realization that I was out of hot chocolate mix triggered the problem recognition stage, which then led me to search for alternative solutions to satisfy my need for hot chocolate. This stage is followed by the information search stage, where the consumer looks for information on products or services that could potentially solve the identified problem.

Therefore, after realizing that I was out of the hot chocolate mix, I could have gone to the store to purchase more, looked for a recipe online to make my own hot chocolate mix, or opted for a different drink altogether.

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with the recent addition of a traditional japanese tea garden, a well-funded art museum wants to invest in educating staff who have little understanding of japanese tea rituals. which activity should hr recommend to develop cultural awareness and appreciation for the tea garden experience?

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HR should recommend a cultural training workshop for the staff to develop their awareness and appreciation for the Japanese tea garden experience.

The workshop should include sessions on the history and significance of Japanese tea ceremonies, the etiquette and protocol for participating in a tea ceremony, and the symbolism and meaning behind each aspect of the ceremony.

Additionally, the workshop could include a guided tour of the tea garden with a knowledgeable guide who can explain the different elements of the garden and their cultural significance.

This training will not only help the staff understand and appreciate the tea garden experience but also allow them to provide better customer service to visitors who are interested in the tea garden and its cultural significance.

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What is a job that HR generalists do not do?
Administer compensation programs
Ensure compliance with federal and state regulations
Handle employee relations
Focus on one area of HR

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A job that HR generalists do not do is to focus on one area of HR.

HR generalists administer compensation programs, ensure compliance with federal and state regulations, and handle employee relations, but they do not specialize in a single HR area.

As HR generalists, they have a broad range of responsibilities covering multiple aspects of human resources. Their duties include administering compensation and benefits programs, ensuring compliance with federal  laws, managing employee relations, and assisting in talent acquisition and development.

However, unlike HR specialists, who concentrate on a specific area of HR such as compensation and benefits or employee relations, HR generalists need to be well-versed in all aspects of human resources.

This versatility allows them to effectively manage various HR-related tasks within an organization and provide comprehensive support to employees and management. In contrast, HR specialists focus on gaining deep expertise in their chosen field, making them valuable resources for more specialized HR issues.

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Use of the company helicopter, country club memberships, first class air travel, and a chauffeured limousine are examples ofperquisites.golden handcuffs.performance indicators.

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Use of the company helicopter, country club memberships, first class air travel, and a chauffeured limousine - are less common and may be reserved for high-level executives or other employees with specialized needs or responsibilities.

The term that describes the examples given is "perquisites," also known as "perks" or "fringe benefits." Perquisites are non-wage compensation provided by an employer to employees in addition to their regular salary or wages.

These perks are often provided to employees as a means of attracting and retaining top talent, improving job satisfaction and morale, and enhancing the overall compensation package for employees.

Some common examples of perquisites include company cars, expense accounts, health insurance, retirement benefits, and paid time off.

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Body Boards Inc.(BBI) produces and sells 500 surfboards a year. BBI has a variable cost per unit of $175 and produces 500 surfboards per year. Its total fixed costs are $25,000 per year. What is the average cost of producing one surfboard?

Answers

The average cost of producing one surfboard is $225 when it produces 500 surfboards per year .

The amount it takes to produce a unit is known as the average fixed cost (AFC). The average fixed cost is derived from fixed costs, which are costs that remain constant regardless of the number of products or services produced by an organization.

Average cost  = Total Fixed Cost + Total Variable Cost

                             = $25,000 + $175 × 500

                                  = $112,500

Average cost of producing one surfboard = $ 112,500 ÷ 500

                                                                         = $ 225

Hence , the average cost of producing one surfboard is $225 .

Organizations for the most part recalculate fixed costs occasionally to guarantee they keep creating a gain from their labor and products. Rent, the cost of machinery, salaries, and annual business subscriptions are all examples of fixed costs.

The sum of all the labor and materials required to produce a unit of your product is the variable cost. Your absolute factor cost is equivalent to the variable expense per unit, increased by the quantity of units delivered. Divide your total variable cost by the number of units produced to get your average variable cost.

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TC = 151 +37Q+ 202 What is the average fixed cost when 12 units are produced? Enter as a value. ROUND TO TWO DECIMAL PLACES. a Type your answer...

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The average fixed cost when 12 units are produced is $38.42.

To find the average fixed cost when 12 units are produced, we need to first find the total cost of producing 12 units.

Using the given equation TC = 151 + 37Q + 202, we can plug in Q = 12:

TC = 151 + 37(12) + 202 = 905

Now, we need to find the fixed cost component of this total cost.

The fixed cost component is the cost that does not vary with the level of production, so it can be found by subtracting the variable cost component from the total cost:

Fixed Cost = Total Cost - Variable Cost

Variable Cost = 37Q

Variable Cost at Q = 12:

Variable Cost = 37(12) = 444

Fixed Cost = 905 - 444 = 461

Finally, we can find the average fixed cost by dividing the fixed cost by the level of production:

Average Fixed Cost = Fixed Cost / Q

Average Fixed Cost at Q = 12:

Average Fixed Cost = 461 / 12 = 38.42

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sit-stay-sleep is thinking about decreasing room prices on the deluxe suite by 15% with the expectation that it will cause an additional 20 rooms to be sold for 1 night. this change will result in total revenue of $16,069, up from previous total revenue of $14,925. does this change signify elastic or inelastic demand and why? multiple choice

Answers

The change in room prices at Sit-Stay-Sleep signifies elastic demand because the change in quantity demanded is greater than the change in price, resulting in an increase in revenue.  So, the correct option is B.

Here's a step-by-step explanation:

1. The deluxe suite price is decreased by 15%.
2. This decrease causes an additional 20 rooms to be sold for 1 night. Thus, percentage change in quantity = (20 / 90) * 100 = 22.22%                                3. The total revenue increases from $14,925 to $16,069.

4. The elasticity of demand is given by the formula: Price elasticity of demand = (Percentage change in quantity) / (Percentage change in price) = (22.22 / 15) = 1.48

Since the price elasticity of demand is greater than 1, this change signifies elastic demand. This is because a decrease in price by 15% led to a more significant increase in quantity sold (22.22%), resulting in higher total revenue.

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Complete Question:

Sit-Stay-Sleep is thinking about decreasing room prices on the Deluxe Suite by 15% with the expectation that it will cause an additional 20 rooms to be sold for 1 night. This change will result in total revenue of $16,069, up from the previous total revenue of $14,925. Does this change signify elastic or inelastic demand and why?

Multiple Choice

Neither, The change in quantity demanded is not affected by the change in price.

elastic; The change in quantity demanded is greater than the change in price, resulting in an increase in revenue.

inelastic; The change in quantity demanded is greater than the change in price, resulting in an increase in revenue.

inelastic; The change in quantity demanded is less than the change in price, resulting in a decrease in revenue.

elastic; The change in quantity demanded is less than the change in price, resulting in a decrease in revenue

who is entitled to a rebate of a portion of the commission? a) only the seller b) only the buyer c) the referring license d) either the seelr or the buyer

Answers

Both the seller and the buyer may be entitled to a rebate of a portion of the commission, subject to state laws and regulations. The correct answer is d) either the seller or the buyer.

In some states, rebates are allowed and can be paid to either the seller or the buyer, or both. In other states, rebates are not allowed, or they are allowed only under certain conditions.

However, in most states, the payment of rebates is generally limited to licensed real estate agents or brokers who are involved in the transaction. For example, a referring license (i.e. an agent or broker who referred the buyer or seller to the transaction) may be entitled to a rebate if permitted by state law, but the entitlement would be subject to the rules and regulations of that state.

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what section of the codification describes imputation of interest? briefly describe imputation of interest. when a note is exchanged for property, goods, or service in a bargained transaction entered into at arm's length, there should be a general that the rate of interest by the parties to the transaction represents and compensation to the supplier for the use of the related funds. that presumption, however, must not permit the form of the transaction to prevail over its economic substance and thus would not apply if interest is not , the interest rate is , or the stated face amount of the note is different from the current cash sales price for the same or similar items or from the fair value of the note at the date of the transaction. the use of an interest rate that varies from interest rates warrants evaluation of whether the face amount and the stated interest rate of a note or obligation provide reliable evidence for properly recording the exchange and subsequent related interest.

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Imputation of interest is discussed in Section 835 of the Codification.

Imputation of interest refers to the process of imputing or attributing a reasonable rate of interest to a transaction between two parties, where no interest rate has been explicitly stated in the agreement. This is done to ensure that the transaction reflects the true economic substance of the agreement.

In general, when a note is exchanged for property, goods, or services, there is a presumption that the interest rate represents compensation to the supplier for the use of the related funds.

However, this presumption does not apply in certain situations, such as when the interest rate is not reasonable, the interest is not stated, or the face amount of the note is different from its fair value.

When the stated interest rate is different from the prevailing interest rates, the face amount and stated interest rate of the note must be evaluated to determine if they provide reliable evidence for properly recording the exchange and subsequent related interest.

In such cases, it may be necessary to impute an interest rate to ensure that the transaction reflects its economic substance. The imputed interest rate is determined based on the prevailing interest rates at the time of the transaction.

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which optimization model will not provide an optimum solution, but can reduce the problem to a manageable size

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One optimization model that may not provide an optimum solution but can reduce the problem to a manageable size is the heuristic approach. This approach involves using a set of rules or guidelines to search for a solution, rather than a mathematical algorithm that guarantees an optimal solution.



Heuristic approaches are often used in situations where finding an exact solution would be too time-consuming or complex. By using heuristics, the problem can be simplified and the search space can be reduced, making it easier to find a solution that is close to optimal.

However, it's important to note that heuristics do not guarantee an optimal solution and may not always find the best possible solution. They are best used in situations where an approximate solution is sufficient, or when the time and resources required to find an exact solution are not available.

Overall, the heuristic approach can be a useful tool for reducing complex optimization problems to a manageable size, but it's important to consider its limitations and potential drawbacks before implementing it in a particular situation.

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What are the costs of restricting globalizationi.e., keeping production jobs in home country? Provide an exampleand explain its impact on society!

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The costs of restricting globalization include higher prices for consumers, reduced competitiveness for domestic industries, and limited access to new markets.

For example, if a country restricts the outsourcing of production jobs to other countries, it may result in higher labor costs and reduced efficiency for domestic companies. This could lead to increased prices for consumers, as companies may pass on these higher costs to their customers. Additionally, without access to new markets, domestic companies may struggle to compete with foreign businesses and may not be able to expand their operations or take advantage of new opportunities.

The impact of this on society can be significant, as it could lead to job losses and reduced economic growth. When domestic industries are not competitive, they may not be able to create as many jobs, which can lead to higher levels of unemployment and a weaker economy overall. Additionally, higher prices for goods and services can be a burden on households, particularly those with lower incomes.

Therefore, while restricting globalization may seem like a way to protect domestic industries, it can have unintended consequences that ultimately harm society as a whole.

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when speaking to a customer about exchange-traded funds (etfs), a registered representative could make which of the following correct statements? a) etfs cannot be bought on margin. b) etfs have different potential tax consequences than mutual funds. c) etfs cannot be purchased using traditional limit or stop orders. d) etfs can be purchased only by paying a sales charge added to the nav.

Answers

When speaking to a customer about exchange-traded funds (ETFs), a registered representative could make the following correct statement: ETFs have different potential tax consequences than mutual funds. The correct answer is option B



ETFs and mutual funds are both types of investment vehicles that pool investor's money to invest in a diversified portfolio of assets. However, they have some differences, and one of them is related to their tax treatment. ETFs are generally more tax-efficient than mutual funds because of their unique structure.



In a mutual fund, when investors buy or sell shares, the transactions are carried out directly with the fund company, and the fund may need to buy or sell underlying assets to accommodate these transactions. This can generate capital gains or losses, which are then passed on to the remaining shareholders, potentially creating a tax liability.



On the other hand, ETFs are traded on an exchange like stocks, allowing investors to buy and sell shares throughout the trading day. The creation and redemption of ETF shares are carried out through in-kind transactions, meaning that the ETF provider exchanges the underlying assets directly with authorized participants, usually large financial institutions, without triggering taxable events. This process minimizes capital gains taxes for the ETF shareholders.



The other statements provided are incorrect because: a) ETFs can be bought on margin, c) ETFs can be purchased using traditional limit or stop orders, and d) ETFs can be purchased without paying a sales charge added to the net asset value (NAV). The correct answer is option B

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if you have a retirement saving horizon of 20 years, and you want to have saved $750,000 by the time you retire and you are planning to set aside $15,000 per year, you would need to find an investment vehicle that yielded what annual rate per year?

Answers

To achieve your retirement savings goal of $750,000 within a 20-year horizon, while setting aside $15,000 per year, you would need to find an investment vehicle with a specific annual rate of return. This is important because the annual rate directly affects the growth of your investment over time, contributing to meeting your financial objective.

The future value of an investment (FV) can be calculated using the formula:

[tex]FV =\frac{ P * [(1 + r)^n - 1]}{r}[/tex]

where P is the annual deposit amount, r is the annual interest rate

and n is the number of years. In this scenario

P = $15,000

n = 20 years, and

FV = $750,000.

To find the required annual rate (r), we need to solve the equation:

[tex]$750,000 = \frac{15,000 * [(1 + r)^{20} - 1]} { r}[/tex]

By solving for r, we find that the approximate required annual interest rate is 5.95%.

In summary, to reach your retirement savings goal of $750,000 within a 20-year timeframe while depositing $15,000 per year, you would need to find an investment vehicle that yields an annual interest rate of approximately 5.95%. This rate would help ensure that your investments grow adequately over time to achieve your desired retirement savings.

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Question 41 2 pts The U.S. economy suffered a terrible recession in 1981-82. In this problem and the next one, we'll calculate how deep the recession was. At the beginning of the recession in 1981, U.S. (nominal) GDP was about $6,930 billion, and in 1982 GDP was about $6,805 billion. The price level in 1981 was 91, and in 1982 the price level was 97. First, use the "Babe Ruth" formula to convert 1981 GDP into 1982 dollars. (This result represents real GDP in 1981, measured in terms of 1982 dollars.) Enter your answer in the space below, ignoring the billions. (For example, if your answer is $7.130 billion, just enter the number 7130.)

Answers

The real GDP in 1981, measured in 1982 dollars, is approximately 7,387.

To convert the 1981 GDP (in recession) into 1982 dollars using the Babe Ruth formula, follow these steps:

1. Calculate the GDP deflator: Divide the price level in 1982 by the price level in 1981.
  GDP deflator = (Price level in 1982) / (Price level in 1981)
  GDP deflator = 97 / 91 ≈ 1.0659

2. Multiply the 1981 nominal GDP by the GDP deflator to find the real GDP in 1981, measured in 1982 dollars.
  Real GDP (1981) = Nominal GDP (1981) * GDP deflator
  Real GDP (1981) = $6,930 billion * 1.0659

3. Calculate the real GDP in 1981, measured in 1982 dollars.
  Real GDP (1981) ≈ $6,930 billion * 1.0659 ≈ $7,387.06 billion
So, the real GDP in 1981, measured in 1982 dollars, is approximately 7,387. Just enter the number 7387 as your answer.

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reference in a group auditors' report to the fact that part of the audit of group financial statements was performed by component auditors most likely would be an indication of

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When a group auditor's report mentions that part of the audit of group financial statements was performed by component auditors, it means that the auditor has relied on the work of other auditors to obtain sufficient audit evidence. The correct answer is (d)

This is a common practice when a group of companies has subsidiaries or affiliates that are audited by different auditors. In such cases, the group auditor would express an unmodified opinion on the group financial statements but may include an explanatory paragraph to provide additional information about the work of the component auditors. This does not indicate any reservation or modification of the auditor's opinion on the financial statements.

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Complete Question:

A reference in a group auditor's report to the fact that part of the audit of group financial statements was performed by component auditors most likely would be an indication of:

a. Qualified opinion

b. Disclaimer of opinion

c. Adverse opinion

d. Unmodified opinion with explanatory paragraph

Discuss the advantages of the multifactor APT over the single factor APT and the CAPM.What is one shortcoming of the multifactor APT and how does this shortcoming compare toCAPM implications?

Answers

The multifactor APT (Arbitrage Pricing Theory) is an improvement over the single factor APT and the CAPM (Capital Asset Pricing Model) in several ways. Firstly, the multifactor APT allows for multiple factors to be considered when assessing asset pricing. Shortcoming can make it difficult for smaller investors or those without access to sophisticated modeling tools to use

This means that it can take into account a wider range of market and economic factors that may affect the performance of an asset, making it a more accurate predictor of asset returns. By contrast, the single-factor APT and CAPM only consider one factor, making them less flexible and less reliable.

Another advantage of the multifactor APT is that it is better equipped to handle complex market conditions. For example, during periods of high volatility or uncertain economic conditions, multiple factors can be used to help predict asset returns more accurately. This is in contrast to the CAPM, which assumes that all investors have the same expectations and ignores market volatility and uncertainty.

However, one shortcoming of the multifactor APT is that it requires a large amount of data and expertise to implement effectively. This can make it difficult for smaller investors or those without access to sophisticated modeling tools to use. In comparison, the CAPM is easier to implement and requires fewer data, but is less accurate in predicting asset returns.

Overall, the multifactor APT offers many advantages over the single-factor APT and the CAPM, but its complexity and data requirements may make it less accessible to some investors. Despite this, it remains a valuable tool for those who are able to use it effectively.

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Here is a consumption function: C = Co + MPC(Yd). The Co term is usually defined as = a. autonomous consumption. b. point-zero consumption c. mandatory consumption. d. propensitory consumption. e. none of the above

Answers

A consumption function is given as C = Co + MPC(Yd). Autonomous consumption is the standard definition of the Co term.

The correct answer is A

What constitutes an autonomous consumption example?

When an entity spends money on products and services, regardless of their income level, this is referred to as autonomous consumption. It guarantees a minimal level of living, with examples including the payment of necessities including rent, utilities, food, prescription drugs, and interest responsibilities.

What creates self-sustaining consumption?

When people are in a desperate situation and don't have any money but yet have expenses, autonomous consumption is most common. Even if someone is poor, they still need to have access to basic necessities including food, shelter, utilities, healthcare, and transportation.

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which of the following statements is false? group of answer choices a cost performance baseline is a time-phased budget that project managers use to measure and monitor cost performance critical chain scheduling takes limited resources into account when creating a project schedule the first step in planning a project schedule is developing an activity list fast tracking and parametric modeling are schedule compression techniques

Answers

The false statement among the provided choices is fast tracking and parametric modeling are schedule compression techniques. The correct answer is option D.

Fast tracking and parametric modeling are both examples of schedule compression techniques used in project management. Fast tracking involves overlapping project activities that would normally be performed sequentially to shorten the overall project duration.

Parametric modeling is a statistical technique that uses historical data to estimate project duration and cost based on specific variables, such as the size or complexity of the project.

Therefore, the correct answer is D. Fast tracking and parametric modeling are schedule compression techniques.

which of the following statements is false? group of answer choices

A. a cost performance baseline is a time-phased budget that project managers use to measure and monitor

B. cost performance critical chain scheduling takes limited resources into account when creating a project schedule

C. the first step in planning a project schedule is developing an activity list

D. fast tracking and parametric modeling are schedule compression techniques

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True or False: Employee characteristics and HR policies will be relatively the same for all organizations.

Answers

The statement "employee characteristics and HR policies will be relatively the same for all organizations" is false because every organization has its own unique culture, values, and goals, which affect the type of employees and the HR policies they implement.

Employee characteristics vary greatly from organization to organization, based on factors such as the industry, job requirements, and organizational culture.

For instance, a tech start-up may seek to hire young, innovative, and entrepreneurial employees who can work in a fast-paced and dynamic environment, while a law firm may prioritize experienced and detail-oriented professionals who can handle complex legal cases. Similarly, HR policies differ widely between organizations. Factors such as organizational size, industry, and geographical location all play a role in shaping HR policies, the statement is false.

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over what range of output is marginal revenue declining?a.1 to 6 unitsb.3 to 7 unitsc.7 to 9 unitsd.marginal revenue is constant over the entire range of output.

Answers

Based on the given table, marginal revenue is constant over the entire range of output. Thus the correct option is D.

The income benefit carried on by the sale of a single more unit of output is known as marginal revenue. Despite the fact that marginal revenue might remain constant at certain levels of production.

Competitive businesses often have reliable margins of profit. This is because businesses have little to no price flexibility and the market output determines the ideal price level.

The fluctuation in a company's total revenue is divided by the change in its total output amount to determine the marginal revenue.

Therefore, option D is appropriate.

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The complete question is probably.

Refer to Table 14-1. Over what range of output is marginal revenue declining?

0 $5

1 $5

2 $5

3 $5

4 $5

5 $5

6 $5

7 $5

8 $5

9 $5

are most airline and major general aviation reliever airports in the united states managed, operated, and maintained by public or private employees?

Answers

In the United States, most airline and major general aviation reliever airports are managed, operated, and maintained by a mix of both public and private employees and organizations.

The management of public airports is typically overseen by a governmental agency, such as the Federal Aviation Administration (FAA) or a state or local aviation authority. These agencies are responsible for the administration of the airport and often employ a mix of public employees, including airport directors, operations managers, and maintenance staff.
However, many airports also have private companies that are contracted to provide various services, such as ground handling, fueling, and maintenance. These companies employ private employees to perform these services.
In addition, some airports are entirely privately owned and operated. These airports are typically smaller, general aviation airports that are not designated as reliever airports for major airlines. Private owners of these airports often contract out the management and operation of the airport to private companies.
Overall, the management, operation, and maintenance of airports in the United States is a complex mix of public and private employees and organizations.

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a company that sells food processors buys a full program-length spot on a channel and decides to promote the product by demonstrating how to use it, showcasing its benefits, and taking orders by telephone. this is an example of a(n) .

Answers

This is an example of Direct Response Advertising. Direct Response Advertising is a type of advertising that encourages the viewer to take an immediate action, such as making a purchase or calling a specific number.

What is Direct Response?

Direct response is a marketing strategy that is designed to elicit an immediate response from customers. It is typically used in television, radio, print, and digital ads, sending a clear call-to-action to the customer and providing a way for them to purchase an advertised product or service. Direct response marketing is often used to generate leads and sales quickly and with a minimal amount of effort. It is an effective way to reach an audience and measure the success of campaigns. By tracking responses, companies can determine which tactics are working and which need to be adjusted.


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A difficult boss, a bad job situation, and negative economic circumstancesare obstacles that can promote managers' learning.are easily simulated in management training programs.

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Management training programs can equip managers with tools and strategies to navigate challenges such as difficult bosses, bad job situations, and negative economic circumstances, enabling them to grow and develop as leaders.

Difficult bosses, bad job situations, and negative economic circumstances are all common obstacles that managers may face in their careers. These challenges can be difficult to navigate, but they can also provide valuable learning opportunities for managers who are willing to reflect on their experiences and seek solutions.

While these obstacles may be difficult to simulate in a management training program, it is still possible to provide managers with tools and strategies to help them cope with these challenges. For example, training programs can provide managers with opportunities to practice their communication and conflict resolution skills, which can be useful in dealing with difficult bosses or navigating a bad job situation.

Ultimately, while it may be difficult to fully simulate the challenges that managers may face in their careers, management training programs can still provide valuable insights and strategies to help managers navigate these obstacles and continue to grow and develop as leaders.

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Which basic EOQ assumption does the EPQ model relax?-Demand is known and constant. -Orders arrive at once. -Back orders are not allowed. -Quantity discounts are not considered. -Lead time is known and constant.

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The basic EOQ model assumption that the "demand is known and constant". The correct option is A.

The EOQ or Economic Order Quantity is the orders arrive all at one time, quantity discounts are not considered and the lead time.

The types of EOQ EOQ model, EOQ with quantity discounts, EOQ with production setup costs, EOQ with backordering and Stochastic EOQ models. This EOQ model help the agencies and organizations.

Therefore, the basic EOQ assumption that the EPQ model relaxes that demand is known and constant. The correct option is A.

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Moving down and to the right on an isoquant tells us how much quantity increases as inputs increase. (T/F)?

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False. Moving down and to the right on an isoquant tells us how much quantity increases while keeping inputs constant. As inputs increase, we move to a higher isoquant.

Moving down and to the right on an isoquant does not tell us how much quantity increases as inputs increase. An isoquant is a curve that represents all possible combinations of inputs that can produce a particular level of output. Therefore, a movement along an isoquant represents a change in the combination of inputs used to produce a certain level of output, but it does not give information on how much the quantity of output increases as inputs increase. To determine the amount of output that can be produced from a given combination of inputs, we need to look at the slope of the isoquant. The slope of an isoquant is known as the marginal rate of technical substitution (MRTS), and it represents the rate at which one input can be substituted for another while keeping the level of output constant. The MRTS varies along the isoquant and provides information on how much of one input must be used to compensate for a change in the quantity of another input in order to maintain the same level of output.

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Select the correct answer.
In which type of economic system, does the government handle decisions related to the production of goods and services?
O A
command
B. market-driven
O C. mixed
O D. market

Answers

Option A is correct.

Command economic.An economic system known as a "command economy" is one in which the government or central planner decides what should be produced.

Give an example of a command economy?

A command economy, on the other hand, is one where all the elements of production are controlled by a centralised government that controls most, if not all, of the firms.

Just why a command economy?

Making ensuring the government can achieve its economic objectives is the main goal of a command economy. The attainment of full employment, the management of inflation, or the development of certain industries may be among these objectives.

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Q1 When the government develops an innovation strategy (ormission), it must take into account the ‘spillover effect’.a) Explain what this effect means in an innovation strategy(mission) context?
b) What indicators can you use to measure the extent of the spillover effect?
c) Explain and justify the use of each of the indicators.

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a) In the context of innovation strategy or mission, the spillover effect refers to the unintended positive externalities that occur when a company or organization invests in research and development (R&D) and innovation.

These positive externalities can include knowledge spillovers, where new knowledge or technology developed by one company spills over to benefit other companies or industries, and social spillovers, where innovations can have positive impacts on society as a whole, such as improving health or the environment.

b) There are several indicators that can be used to measure the extent of the spillover effect, including:

Patent citations: Patent citations measure how often patents are referenced by other patents, indicating the extent to which knowledge is spilling over from one company or industry to another.

Collaboration networks: Collaboration networks can show the extent to which companies are working together and sharing knowledge and resources.

Innovation diffusion: Innovation diffusion refers to the rate at which new technologies or innovations are adopted by other companies or industries, indicating the extent to which knowledge spillovers are occurring.

c) Each of these indicators can be used to provide insights into the spillover effect in an innovation strategy context. Patent citations can show which companies or industries are benefiting from knowledge spillovers, and how much. Collaboration networks can provide insights into which companies are working together and sharing knowledge, and which industries are likely to benefit from spillovers. Innovation diffusion can indicate the extent to which innovations are being adopted by other companies or industries, providing insights into the potential benefits of spillovers. However, it's important to note that these indicators are not perfect measures of the spillover effect, and other factors such as market conditions, regulatory environments, and social and economic factors can also affect the extent of spillovers.

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