What two activities caused antibiotic resistance to arise by 1970's?
What are the three consequences of antibiotic resistance?

Answers

Answer 1

The two activities that caused antibiotic resistance to arise by the 1970s were the overuse and misuse of antibiotics, as well as the insufficient development of new antibiotics. The three consequences of antibiotic resistance are increased morbidity and mortality rates, increased healthcare costs, and decreased effectiveness of medical procedures.

Overuse and misuse of antibiotics occurred when antibiotics were prescribed for viral infections, which antibiotics cannot treat, or when patients stopped taking antibiotics before completing the full course of treatment, allowing the bacteria to adapt and become resistant. Insufficient development of new antibiotics occurred due to a lack of funding for research and development, as well as a decrease in the profitability of antibiotics compared to other medications.

Increased morbidity and mortality rates occur because infections that were previously treatable with antibiotics may now become untreatable. Increased healthcare costs occur due to the need for more expensive and intensive treatments, such as hospitalization and surgery. Decreased effectiveness of medical procedures occurs because antibiotics are often used to prevent infections during surgeries or cancer treatments, but if the bacteria are already resistant, these procedures become riskier.

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Related Questions

UVJ Degeneration & Disc Fissuring- the extent of disc fissuring is variable according to ___ & ____ _____, in the age range of 35-45 yrs
- (Upper/Lower) cervical discs are fissured 1st

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UVJ Degeneration and Disc Fissuring: The extent of disc fissuring is variable according to the degree of degeneration and the individual's physical activity levels in the age range of 35–45 years. Upper cervical discs are fissured first.

The extent of disc fissuring in UVJ degeneration can be variable according to the degree of degeneration and the individual's physical activity levels in the age range of 35-45 years. The upper cervical discs are typically the first to undergo fissuring in UVJ degeneration, as they experience more stress and mobility than the lower cervical discs.

However, it's worth noting that these are general trends, and the extent and location of disc fissuring can vary among individuals based on various factors such as genetics, lifestyle, and underlying medical conditions.

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A client whose gestational diabetes is poorly controlled throughout her pregnancy goes into labor at 38 weeks' gestation and gives birth. When assisting with implementing the plan of care for this neonate, which intervention would be the priority during the neonate's first 24 hours?

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The priority intervention for a neonate whose mother had poorly controlled gestational diabetes is to closely monitor and manage the baby's blood glucose levels during the first 24 hours of life.

Infants of diabetic mothers are at increased risk of hypoglycemia due to the high levels of insulin they produce in response to the mother's hyperglycemia. The baby's blood glucose levels should be monitored frequently, and early feeding should be initiated to maintain glucose levels within a normal range.

Additionally, the baby may need to receive intravenous glucose infusions if blood glucose levels remain low despite feeding. Monitoring for other potential complications, such as respiratory distress and hyperbilirubinemia, should also be undertaken.

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A method of sampling in which all people in the population of interest have an equal chance of being selected to be included in the study is

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The method of sampling you're referring to is called Simple Random Sampling. In this method, all people in the population of interest have an equal chance of being selected to be included in the study, ensuring unbiased and representative results.

The method of sampling that ensures all people in the population of interest have an equal chance of being selected for inclusion in the study is called random sampling. This method is used to minimize the risk of selection bias and to ensure that the sample represents the population as accurately as possible. Random sampling can be done through various techniques, such as simple random sampling, stratified random sampling, cluster sampling, and systematic sampling.

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the nurse working in the emergency department is assessing an intoxicated driver involved in a motor vehicle crash when the client insists on ambulating to the bathroom. the nurse escorts the client and calls for help while anticipating which abnormal gait in this client that places him at risk for falls?

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The nurse escorts the client and calls for help while anticipating cerebellar ataxia and abnormal gait in this client that places him at risk for falls, option (c) is correct.

Cerebellar ataxia is a gait disturbance caused by damage to the cerebellum, a part of the brain that plays an important role in balance and coordination. Individuals with cerebellar ataxia may have a wide-based gait, staggering, and difficulty with heel-to-toe walking.

The intoxicated driver may be at risk for falls while ambulating to the bathroom due to impaired balance and coordination caused by cerebellar ataxia. The nurse should anticipate the possibility of cerebellar ataxia in the client and take appropriate measures to prevent falls, such as providing support during ambulation, ensuring a clear path to the bathroom, and ensuring adequate lighting, option (c) is correct.

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The correct question is:

The nurse working in the emergency department is assessing an intoxicated driver involved in a motor vehicle crash when the client insists on ambulating to the bathroom. The nurse escorts the client and calls for help while anticipating which abnormal gait in this client that places him at risk for falls?

a) Sensory ataxia

b) Scissors movement

c) Cerebellar ataxia

d) Spastic Hemiparesis

What visual defects can be seen from a lesion in the posterior cerebral artery?

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Depending on where and how severe the lesion is, visual field loss, aberrant colour vision, visual hallucinations, or visual agnosia may result from a lesion in the posterior cerebral artery.

Because the posterior cerebral artery nourishes the occipital lobe of the brain, which processes visual information, it can result in a variety of visual abnormalities. These flaws can include scotomas (blind spots), quadrantanopia (loss of a quarter of the visual field), and homonymous hemianopia (loss of half the visual field in both eyes).

Aspects of colour vision, visual hallucinations, or visual agnosia (difficulty identifying things) are further potential visual symptoms. The location and degree of the lesion affect the specific symptoms.

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fill in the blank. In searching database subject headings, you would use the ____________ technique to broaden the search by locating all records indexed to your search term plus any that include the term in a related, narrower category

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In searching database subject headings, you would use the exploding technique to broaden the search by locating all records indexed to your search term plus any that include the term in a related, narrower category.

The exploding technique, also known as "exploding a term," involves searching for a specific term and then expanding the search to include any related, narrower categories that are included in the subject heading thesaurus. This technique is useful for broadening a search and ensuring that all relevant records are retrieved, even those that may not have an exact match to the original search term.

By using this technique, researchers can ensure that their searches are comprehensive and thorough, and that they are not missing any potentially relevant information.

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Most common cause of pneumonia in <20 yo with CF?

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The most common cause of pneumonia in individuals under 20 years old with Cystic Fibrosis (CF) is Pseudomonas aeruginosa, a bacterial infection.

The most common cause of pneumonia in individuals under the age of 20 with cystic fibrosis (CF) is Pseudomonas aeruginosa. This bacterium is known to colonize the airways of people with CF and can lead to chronic infections and lung damage over time. Early detection and prompt treatment of Pseudomonas aeruginosa infections are essential to prevent complications and improve lung function in individuals with CF. Proper treatment and management are essential to prevent complications and maintain lung health in CF patients.

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the nurse is obtaining a capillary blood glucose level before lunch from a client with diabetes mellitus. what reading obtained would require immediate intervention by the nurse?

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If the nurse obtains a capillary blood glucose level of less than 70 mg/dL or higher than 250 mg/dL, it would require immediate intervention by the nurse.

A capillary blood glucose level of less than 70 mg/dL indicates hypoglycemia, which can lead to seizures, unconsciousness, and other serious complications if left untreated. The nurse should administer a source of rapidly absorbable glucose, such as fruit juice or candy, to raise the blood glucose level and prevent further hypoglycemia.

On the other hand, a capillary blood glucose level of higher than 250 mg/dL indicates hyperglycemia, which can lead to dehydration, diabetic ketoacidosis, and other serious complications if left untreated. The nurse should administer insulin as ordered by the healthcare provider, encourage the client to drink plenty of water, and monitor for signs and symptoms of diabetic ketoacidosis, such as fruity breath odor, rapid breathing, and confusion.

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a 75-year-old client is brought to the emergency department by the family. the family relates that the client has confusion, seizures, and abnormal perception of movement. when the nurse looks at the medication that the family has brought to the ed, the nurse discovers that twice the number of tablets are missing from the vial as there should be if the prescription orders were being followed. what should the nurse suspect is wrong with this client?

Answers

The nurse should suspect that the client may be experiencing an overdose of the medication due to taking more tablets than prescribed.

The client's symptoms of confusion, seizures, and abnormal perception of movement, along with the discovery that twice the number of tablets are missing from the vial, indicate a potential medication-related issue. Overdosing on medication can lead to a range of symptoms, including confusion and seizures, which are consistent with the client's presentation.

It is important for the nurse to assess the client's vital signs, including blood pressure, heart rate, and respiratory rate, as well as perform a thorough neurological assessment to further evaluate the client's condition.

The nurse should also obtain a complete medication history, including all prescription and over-the-counter medications, as well as any recent changes in medication regimen or dosage. The nurse should notify the healthcare provider immediately and provide them with all relevant information for further evaluation and appropriate management of the client's condition. In some cases, the client may require supportive care, such as airway management, seizure precautions, and monitoring, until the effects of the medication wear off or are treated.

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in normal retrusive tooth contacting movement of the mandible, which opposing tooth contacts the maxillary central incisor

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In a normal retrusive tooth contacting movement of the mandible, the maxillary central incisors typically contact the lingual surface of the mandibular incisors, specifically the mandibular central incisors.

This contact happens during the incisal guiding phase of mandibular movement, which is the initial phase of contact in which the anterior teeth direct mandibular movement.

The contact between the maxillary central incisors and the lingual surface of the mandibular central incisors protects the posterior teeth from excessive forces and contributes to the occlusion's stability and function.

However, depending on the individual's occlusion and dental architecture, the exact contacts during mandibular movements can differ.

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What should you document after administering a prn medication?

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After administering a prn medication, it is important to document the date and time of administration, the name and dosage of the medication, the reason for administration, and the patient's response to the medication.

the name of the medication, the dosage given, the route of administration, the date and time it was administered, the reason for giving the medication, and any observed effects or side effects on the patient. It is also important to document any adverse reactions or side effects experienced by the patient. Proper documentation is essential for maintaining accurate medical records and ensuring safe and effective patient care.

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what causes an orbital blow out fracture?complications?

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An orbital blowout fracture is caused by blunt force trauma to the eye or the surrounding area. It can result in displacement or fracture of the bones surrounding the eye, particularly the floor or the medial wall of the orbit.

Complications of orbital blowout fracture include double vision, eye muscle dysfunction, and enophthalmos (sunken eye). In severe cases, the optic nerve may be compressed, leading to vision loss. Prompt medical attention is required to prevent long-term complications. Surgery may be necessary to repair the fracture and restore normal eye function.

Other potential complications of orbital blowout fracture include infection, bleeding, and damage to nearby structures such as the sinuses or the brain. Recovery time may vary depending on the severity of the fracture and the presence of associated injuries.

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■ Nurses who specialize in caring for children with complex chronic conditions may experience compassion fatigue as they continue their efforts to meet the ongoing needs of these families.

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Nursing requires a high level of emotional investment as the nurses form strong bonds with the children and their families, providing support and care over an extended period.

The long-term nature of this care can lead to physical, emotional, and mental exhaustion, resulting in compassion fatigue. The nurses may feel overwhelmed by the multiple demands of their job, such as navigating complex medical regimens, communicating with various healthcare providers, and advocating for their patients.

The stress of caring for children with chronic conditions can also be compounded by the uncertainty of the child's prognosis, further adding to the nurse's emotional burden. Nurses who specialize in this area may also experience ethical dilemmas, such as balancing the child's quality of life with the medical treatment options available.

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The complete question is:

Nurses who specialize in caring for children with complex chronic conditions may experience compassion fatigue as they continue their efforts to meet the ongoing needs of these families. Give Reason.

A model of research utilization such as the Rogers model has been designed to:

Answers

Research use models give a system for coordinated effort and the essential events for research usage exercises to find lasting success. Keywords: evidence-based practice, practice models, occupational therapy, and research.

Research usage in clinical dynamic practice is the utilization of best, legitimate, and right now accessible and significant exploration discoveries in clinical and medical services dynamic practice. It improves outcomes for patients.

There are three main stages in previous research utilization models: production, dissemination, and application of research results. Past models zeroed in on instrumental usage of exploration discoveries.

In his model of adopter types, Rogers divided people into innovators (the fastest adopters), early adopters, early majority, late majority, and laggards (those who are the slowest to change). However, very little information about how to actually accelerate and promote change is provided by these traditional models.

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Which nerve innervates the only abductor muscle of the vocal cords?
Internal branch of superior laryngeal nerve
Recurrent laryngeal nerve
External branch of superior laryngeal nerve
Glossopharyngeal nerve

Answers

The nerve that innervates the only abductor muscle of the vocal cords is the internal branch of the superior laryngeal nerve.

The vocal cords are two muscular bands in the larynx (voice box) that vibrate to produce sound.

The position of the vocal cords is controlled by various muscles that are innervated by different nerves.

The abductor muscle of the vocal cords is called the posterior cricoarytenoid muscle (PCA).

This muscle is responsible for pulling the arytenoid cartilages away from each other, which opens up the space between the vocal cords and allows air to flow through the larynx.

The superior laryngeal nerve is a branch of the vagus nerve (cranial nerve X) that supplies sensation to the larynx and also provides motor innervation to some of the muscles involved in vocalization.

The superior laryngeal nerve divides into two branches: the external and internal branches.

The external branch of the superior laryngeal nerve supplies motor fibers to the cricothyroid muscle, which is involved in changing the tension of the vocal cords to produce different pitches of sound.

The internal branch of the superior laryngeal nerve provides sensory fibers to the larynx above the vocal cords, as well as motor fibers to the PCA muscle, which abducts the vocal cords.

Therefore, the correct answer to the question is the internal branch of the superior laryngeal nerve.

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the position of the peak (upfield or downfield) is due to

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The position of the peak (upfield or downfield) in nuclear magnetic resonance (NMR) spectroscopy is due to the electron density surrounding the nucleus being studied.

In NMR spectroscopy, a sample is subjected to a strong magnetic field, causing the nuclei of certain atoms to align with the field. Radiofrequency pulses are then applied, causing the nuclei to absorb energy and move into a higher-energy state. As the nuclei relax back to their original state, they emit energy in the form of electromagnetic radiation, which is detected by the NMR spectrometer.

The position of the NMR peak depends on the chemical environment of the nucleus being studied, which affects the electron density surrounding the nucleus. Electronegative atoms or groups nearby can cause deshielding of the nucleus, resulting in a downfield shift (to the right on an NMR spectrum). Conversely, electron-donating groups can cause shielding of the nucleus, resulting in an upfield shift (to the left on an NMR spectrum).

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Sub-Occipital Triangle- what muscles form this??

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The Sub-Occipital Triangle is formed by three muscles: Rectus Capitis Posterior Major, Rectus Capitis Posterior Minor, and Obliquus Capitis Inferior. These muscles play a role in head and neck movement and stability.

The sub-occipital triangle is formed by four muscles - rectus capitis posterior major, rectus capitis posterior minor, obliquus capitis superior, and obliquus capitis inferior. These muscles are located at the base of the skull, between the occipital bone and the atlas vertebra. They work together to stabilize and move the head and neck. Dysfunction or tightness in these muscles can cause headaches, neck pain, and restricted range of motion.These muscles are deep to the trapezius and splenius capitis muscles and are responsible for various movements of the head and neck. They also play a role in maintaining proper posture and stabilizing the head during movements of the cervical spine.

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Diabetic patients age >40 should recieve what therapy

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Diabetic patients aged >40 should receive a comprehensive therapy plan that includes blood sugar monitoring, a healthy diet, regular exercise, and medications as needed.

Medication for Diabetes:

Medications for diabetes treatment may include insulin, metformin, or other oral medications, depending on the type and severity of the diabetes. It's essential for patients to work closely with their healthcare team to determine the best-individualized treatment plan for their specific needs.

Which therapies are given to Diabetic patients?

There is no one-size-fits-all answer to this question as the appropriate therapy for diabetic patients over the age of 40 will depend on a variety of factors, including their overall health, the severity of their diabetes, and any other medical conditions they may have. However, common treatments for type 2 diabetes in older adults may include lifestyle changes such as diet and exercise, oral medications to control blood sugar levels, and/or insulin therapy. It is important for diabetic patients to work closely with their healthcare provider to determine the best course of treatment for their individual needs.

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Highest risk factor for urinary incontinence

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The highest risk factor for urinary incontinence includes obesity, aging, pregnancy and childbirth (in women), prostate surgery (in men), neurological conditions, and certain medications.

The highest risk factor for urinary incontinence is gender, with women being at a higher risk than men. This is because women have shorter urethra than men and are more likely to experience stress incontinence, which occurs when there is pressure on the bladder, such as during pregnancy, childbirth, or menopause.

Other risk factors for urinary incontinence include:

Age: As people age, the muscles that control the bladder may weaken, increasing the risk of incontinence.Obesity: Excess weight can put pressure on the bladder and increase the risk of incontinence.Chronic coughing: Conditions that cause chronic coughing, such as asthma or chronic obstructive pulmonary disease (COPD), can increase the risk of stress incontinence.Neurological conditions: Conditions that affect the nervous system, such as multiple sclerosis or Parkinson's disease, can interfere with the signals between the brain and the bladder, leading to incontinence.Urinary tract infections: Infections of the bladder or urinary tract can cause irritation and inflammation, leading to incontinence.

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Which international code for ethical conduct by physicians conducting biomedical research followed the Nuremberg Code and provides more specific guidelines

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The international code for ethical conduct by physicians conducting biomedical research that followed the Nuremberg Code and provides more specific guidelines is the Declaration of Helsinki. This code was developed by the World Medical Association in 1964 and has been revised several times since then.

The international code for ethical conduct by physicians conducting biomedical research that followed the Nuremberg Code and provides more specific guidelines is the Declaration of Helsinki. This document was first adopted in 1964 and has since been revised several times to address the changing landscape of biomedical research. It outlines specific ethical principles that must be followed by physicians conducting research involving human subjects, including informed consent, risk minimization, and protection of vulnerable populations. The Declaration of Helsinki is widely recognized as the cornerstone of research ethics and has been adopted by many countries and organizations around the world.


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■ Bereavement support must be provided to the family, making sure that siblings are not overlooked. Allow siblings to participate in planning the memorial service. Encourage parents to allow siblings to express their emotions.

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It is important to provide bereavement support to the entire family, including siblings, after the loss of a loved one. Siblings may often be overlooked during this time, as the focus may be on the parents and their grief.

However, it is crucial to involve siblings in the grieving process, as they too are experiencing a profound loss. Allowing siblings to participate in planning the memorial service and expressing their emotions can help them cope with their grief and find closure.

When a family experiences a loss, it can be difficult for siblings to process their emotions. They may feel neglected, isolated, and confused about how to cope with their grief. Providing bereavement support to siblings can help them feel seen and heard during this difficult time.

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The complete question is:

Bereavement support must be provided to the family, making sure that siblings are not overlooked. Allow siblings to participate in planning the memorial service. Encourage parents to allow siblings to express their emotions. Give reason.

TMJ: Treatment- there is controversy between professions on most beneficial treatments, but most treatments focus on either of what 3 structures?

Answers

Temporomandibular joint disorder treatments typically focus on the joint, muscles, and teeth/bite alignment. The most effective treatment for a patient depends on their symptoms and underlying cause, so consultation with a healthcare professional is essential.

Temporomandibular joint (TMJ) disorders are a group of conditions that affect the jaw joint and surrounding muscles. There is indeed controversy between professions regarding the most effective treatment for TMJ disorders, but most treatments focus on one or more of the following three structures:

The temporomandibular joint itself: Various treatment options target the joint, such as joint mobilization, stretching, or ultrasound therapy. Additionally, some patients may benefit from a custom-made oral splint or mouthguard to protect the joint and relieve pressure.

The muscles of the jaw and neck: Since TMJ disorders often involve muscle tension and pain, treatments that aim to relax the muscles may be effective, such as massage therapy, trigger point injections, or electrical stimulation. Patients may also be encouraged to practice exercises that help stretch and strengthen the jaw muscles.

The teeth and bite alignment: If the TMJ disorder is caused by misaligned teeth or a bad bite, orthodontic treatment or dental restorations, such as crowns or bridges, may be recommended. In severe cases, jaw surgery may be necessary to correct the alignment of the jaw.

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Give examples of types of questions a qualitative researcher would ask?

Answers

What is the research all about
What is the point of the research
What did you use to research that٫always check where it comes from and ask them for a permission that you're using it
Why your doing research

Sorry that's only thing I know
I'm not sure
Brainliest pls

The volume of an oral liquid medicine, available as 2 mg drug X/5 mL, which is required for a 14-day supply for a patient prescribed a dose of 4 mg drug X three times daily

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The volume of the oral liquid medicine required for a 14-day supply for a patient prescribed a dose of 4 mg of drug X three times daily would be 84 mL.

To calculate the volume of the oral liquid medicine needed for a 14-day supply for a patient prescribed a dose of 4 mg drug X three times daily, we need to first calculate the total amount of drug X required for the 14-day period.

The patient is prescribed a dose of 4 mg of drug X three times daily, so the total daily dose of drug X would be

4 mg/dose x 3 doses/day = 12 mg/day

Over 14 days, the total amount of drug X required would be

12 mg/day x 14 days = 168 mg

Now we need to calculate the volume of the oral liquid medicine required to provide 168 mg of drug X.

The oral liquid medicine is available as 2 mg of drug X per 5 mL of liquid. So to get 168 mg of drug X, we would need

168 mg / 2 mg/5 mL = 84 mL

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What injectable drugs for heat stress are used? What if the llama were a pregnant female?

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Some injectable drugs commonly used to treat heat stress in llamas include dexamethasone sodium phosphate, flunixin meglumine, and oxytetracycline.

If the llama were pregnant, the drugs would need to be specifically chosen to ensure the safety of the unborn llama. Some safe options may include dexamethasone sodium phosphate, meloxicam, and oxytetracycline.

Additionally, other medications may be more appropriate depending on the condition being treated. It is important to consult with a veterinarian who has experience with llamas and their care to determine the most appropriate treatment plan.

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Name 3 different Nursing Diagnoses r/t Immobility affecting the Cardiovascular System

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Three nursing diagnoses related to immobility affecting the cardiovascular system are venous thromboembolism, impaired cardiac output, and activity Intolerance.

Risk for Venous Thromboembolism: Immobility can increase the risk of blood clots forming in the deep veins, potentially leading to venous thromboembolism (VTE). This occurs due to reduced blood flow, vascular injury, and hypercoagulability.Impaired Cardiac Output: Prolonged immobility can lead to a reduction in cardiac output, as the heart may become less efficient in pumping blood throughout the body. This can result in decreased tissue perfusion and oxygenation.Activity Intolerance: Immobility can contribute to decreased exercise tolerance, which may affect the cardiovascular system by limiting the individual's ability to engage in physical activities. This can further decrease cardiac output and overall cardiovascular function.

Remember that each patient may have different needs and conditions, so it's essential to assess their individual situation and develop appropriate nursing care plans.

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What is the most serious complciation of hirshprung's disease

Answers

Enterocolitis, an intestine-related consequence of Hirschsprung's illness, is the  most serious complication of hirshprung's disease.

What is hirshprung's disease?


When some of your baby's intestinal nerve cells (ganglion cells) don't grow properly, Hirschsprung's disease, also known as congenital aganglionic megacolon, develops. This causes the passage of feces through the intestines to be delayed.

Stool accumulation in the colon, which can result in bacterial overgrowth and infection, can cause enterocolitis. Patients with Hirschsprung's disease may experience fever, stomach discomfort, diarrhea, and vomiting as signs of enterocolitis. Enterocolitis can be fatal if it progresses to the point of shock, dehydration, and intestinal perforation.

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Predictors of difficult mask ventilation include: (Select 3)
- History of snoring
- Age 50 years
- Edentulousness
- BMI 25 kg/m2
- Presence of beard
- Mallampati 2

Answers

Based on current medical literature, the three predictors of difficult mask ventilation are:History of snoring, BMI 25 kg/m2 or higher, and Mallampati 2 or higher.

History of snoring: Patients who have a history of snoring are at higher risk of difficult mask ventilation due to potential upper airway obstruction.

BMI 25 kg/m2 or higher: Obesity is a significant risk factor for difficult mask ventilation as it increases the amount of soft tissue in the upper airway, making it more difficult to ventilate.

Mallampati 2 or higher: The Mallampati score is a classification system that assesses the degree of visibility of the oral cavity and pharynx. Patients with a score of 2 or higher are at higher risk of difficult mask ventilation due to potential upper airway obstruction.

Therefore, the three predictors of difficult mask ventilation are: History of snoring, BMI 25 kg/m2 or higher, and Mallampati 2 or higher.

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TRUE/FALSE.Based on the findings of the Wye (2009) paper, some health care professionals focus more on what the patient wants as opposed to treatments supported by scientific evidence.

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The given statement " .Based on the findings of the Wye (2009) paper, some health care professionals focus more on what the patient wants as opposed to treatments supported by scientific evidence" is true.

The study found that healthcare professionals sometimes felt that patients were more likely to be compliant with treatments that they had requested or preferred, even if those treatments were not supported by scientific evidence or were potentially harmful.

This highlights the importance of communication between healthcare professionals and patients, as well as the need for healthcare professionals to provide evidence-based recommendations to patients while also taking into account their preferences and values.

Therefore, the given statement is true.

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fill in the blank. A ____________ is a set of concepts linked through propositions to explain a phenomenon.

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A theoretical framework is a set of concepts linked through propositions to explain a phenomenon.Theories are the foundation of scientific knowledge and serve as a framework for understanding and predicting the behavior of the natural world.

A theory is a set of concepts linked through propositions to explain a phenomenon. In science, a theory is a well-substantiated explanation of a natural phenomenon that is based on empirical evidence and has been repeatedly tested and confirmed through rigorous observation, experimentation, and analysis. Theories are the foundation of scientific knowledge and serve as a framework for understanding and predicting the behavior of the natural world. They are constantly refined and revised as new evidence emerges and old assumptions are challenged.

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Which of the four DNA bases contains the largest number of hydrogen bond acceptors when involved in a Watson-Crick base pair? T or F? PST is still a new field 5.82 x 10^6 atoms of water, HO, reacts with Na2O2, how many liters of sodium hydroxide,NaOH can be formed? What assumption is violated when a refracted sound wave is processed ?a. waves travel directly to and from a reflectorb. sound travels at an average speed of 1.54 mm/usc. sound travels in a straight lined. the acoustic imaging plane is very thin which are characteristic of somatosensory pathways? multiple choice question. the sensation of an itch and discriminative touch are transmitted in the same pathway. each pathway transmits information to different regions of the brain. they are all descending pathways. Describe the difference between divergent naming and verbal fluency tasks? 5.31 Land rover ads used to claim that their vehicles could climb a slope of 45 Degrees. For this to be possible, what is the minimum coefficient of static friction between the vehicle's tires and the roads?A .5B .7C .9D 1.0 How are illegal page addresses recognized and trapped by the operating system? a company has net sales of $810,400 and cost of goods sold of $585,400. its net income is $31,530. the company's gross margin and operating expenses, respectively, are: Ayuda x favor es para hoy The velocity of electron of H-atom in its ground state is 2.210 6m/s. The de-Broglie wavelength of this electron would be: Microwaves have speedsEntry field with correct answer greater than visible light. less than visible light. equal to visible light. 55 miles per hour; it's still the law. Collective, customary rituals associated from one life stage to another are called . . . What is the author doing when writing the conflict?A. Introducing a problem which then builds in the rising action.B. Giving the audience background information to set up the story.C. Wrapping up the story. Describe the process of initiating a project and the issues involved. what is the action of myophosphorylase (aka muscle glycogen phosphorylase) Transient vision loss with changes in head position = What part of the soul does poetry affect? A teacher has two large containers filled with blue, red, and green beads. He wants his students to estimate the difference in the proportion of red beads in each container. Each student shakes the first container, selects 25 beads, counts the number of red beads, and returns the beads to the container. The students repeat this process for the second container. One student sampled 10 red beads from the first container and 8 red beads from the second container. The students are asked to construct a 95% confidence interval for the difference in proportions of red beads in each container. Are the conditions for inference met?Yes, the conditions for inference are met.No, the 10% condition is not met.No, the randomness condition is not met.No, the Large Counts Condition is not met. A car rental company's standard charge includes an initial fee plus an additional fee for each mile driven. Thestandard charge S (in dollars) is given by the function S=0.60M+ 16.95, where M is the number of milesdriven.The company also offers an option to insure the car against damage. The insurance charge / (in dollars) isgiven by the function /= 0.25M+5.80.Let C be the total charge (in dollars) for a rental that includes insurance. Write an equation relating C to M.Simplify your answer as much as possible.