which characteristic is most distinguishing between New World Monkeys and Old World Monkeys

Answers

Answer 1

The presence in New World Monkeys and the absence in Old World Monkeys of a prehensile tail is the biggest distinguishing characteristic between the two species.

New World Monkeys are found in Central and South America and have a long, gripping tail, that they may use to grip branches and support their weight while climbing. Old World Monkeys, which are found in Africa and Asia, have non prehensile tails that are utilized largely for balance.  

There has been a very very significant difference between the tail shapes of these two types of monkeys.  There are other physical structure, behavior based and genetic characteristic distinctions between these two groups, but the presence or lack of a prehensile tail is the most notable.

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Related Questions

What kind of trait is illustrated in the diagram?



A.
Autosomal dominant

B.
Autosomal recessive

C.
Sex-linked recessive

D.
Sex-linked dominant

Answers

The illustration depicts an autosomal recessive feature. Option C is correct.

Which inheritance style is depicted in the pedigree?

An allele's mode of inheritance, such as whether it is dominant, recessive, autosomal, or sex-linked, can be determined using information from a pedigree. Children inherit the autosomal dominant traits of one parent. Autosomal recessive traits are transmitted to the children by both parents.

How can a pedigree determine whether a trait is autosomal dominant or recessive?

One way to spot a recessive trait is to look for one that skips a generation in a pedigree (however a trait might still be autosomal recessive and not skip generations). Both sexes share the same prevalence of these traits.

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Humans maintain a nearly constant level of hemoglobin by continually synthesizing and degrading it. This is an example of a(n): A) dynamic steady state. B) equilibrium state. C) exergonic change.D) free-energy change. E) waste of energy

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Option A is correct. Humans maintain a nearly constant level of hemoglobin by continually synthesizing and degrading it. This is an example of a(n) dynamic steady state.

Red blood cells contain a protein called hemoglobin, which binds to oxygen and transports it across the body. In humans, a process of ongoing synthesis and breakdown keeps the amount of hemoglobin in the blood at a level that is essentially constant.

This procedure is an illustration of a dynamic steady state, in which the rates of synthesis and degradation are balanced to maintain a constant level of hemoglobin in the blood.

This is critical for meeting the body's metabolic needs as well as for maintaining the blood's ability to carry oxygen. A situation when the rates of the forward and reverse processes in a chemical reaction are equal is referred to as an equilibrium state.

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Aerobic organisms have the enzyme catalase to deal with toxic forms of:

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Aerobic organisms have the enzyme catalase to breakdown hydrogen peroxide.

There are various enzymes that break down toxic forms of oxygen; catalase is one of them. Hydrogen peroxide is broken down by this enzyme into water and molecule oxygen.

All aerobic organisms include the antioxidant enzyme catalase. In cells subjected to environmental stress, it is known to catalyse H2O2 into water and oxygen in an energy-efficient manner.

Superoxide dismutase, an antioxidant present in foods, produces H2O2, which catalase eliminates. Catalase and glucose oxidase are used in some food preservation processes. In some foods, catalase and glucose oxidase are frequently combined for preservation.

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Which process requires more base pairing to occur, homologous recombination or site specific recombination?

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General or homologous recombination process requires more base pairing to occur.

When does recombination typically happen?

In the pachytene phase of the prophase of meiosis-I, genetic recombination takes place. Because recombination takes place during the protracted prophase of meiosis I, prophase-I is the longest and maybe the most significant period of meiosis.

A pair of homologous DNA sequences interact genetically during general recombination, also referred to as homologous recombination. Although other kinds of DNA molecules with the same nucleotide sequence can also take part, these are typically found on two copies of the same chromosome.

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What 3 major changes are made to pre-mRNA during its conversion to mRNA?

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The 3′ and 5′ ends of the molecule are stabilised and signalled, while intermediate sequences that do not specify the correct amino acids are removed. These are the three most crucial steps in pre-mRNA processing.

To develop into a mature mRNA molecule that can exit the nucleus and be translated, the pre-mRNA must undergo a number of alterations. These include capping, adding a poly-A tail, and splicing, all of which have the ability to be regulated—sped up, slowed down, or altered to produce a new product.

The main transcript, pre-mRNA, contains both coding and non-coding regions. MRNA, or mature messenger RNA, solely carries a gene's coding sequence. Therefore, this is the primary distinction between pre-mRNA and mRNA.

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Additionally, there are two genes, each with their own promoter, that code for proteins important in the regulation of the lac operon:

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The two genes with their own promoter that are important in the regulation of the lac operon code for specific proteins. These proteins are involved in controlling the expression of the lac operon by either promoting or inhibiting transcription of the genes within the operon.

The separate promoters for each gene ensure that their expression can be regulated independently of each other, allowing for precise control over the lac operon.

The two genes, each with their own promoter, that code for proteins important in the regulation of the lac operon are the lacI gene and the catabolite activator protein (CAP) gene. The lacI gene codes for the lac repressor protein, which prevents transcription of the lac operon in the absence of lactose.

The CAP gene codes for the catabolite activator protein, which enhances transcription of the lac operon in the presence of glucose. These proteins work together to ensure that the lac operon is regulated efficiently based on the availability of lactose and glucose in the environment.

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what else is reacted during alpha-ketoglutarate > succinyl-CoA?

Answers

During the conversion of alpha-ketoglutarate to succinyl-CoA, a molecule of Coenzyme A (CoA) is added to form succinyl-CoA.

This reaction is catalyzed by the enzyme alpha-ketoglutarate dehydrogenase complex, which requires several cofactors including thiamine pyrophosphate (TPP), lipoic acid, and FAD. Additionally, NAD+ is reduced to NADH during this reaction, which is an important step in the production of energy via the citric acid cycle. No other molecules are reacted during this specific conversion.
During the conversion of alpha-ketoglutarate to succinyl-CoA, several other components are involved in the reaction.
1. The reaction is catalyzed by an enzyme called alpha-ketoglutarate dehydrogenase complex.
2. A molecule of coenzyme A (CoA) reacts with alpha-ketoglutarate, forming succinyl-CoA.
3. During this process, a molecule of NAD+ (Nicotinamide Adenine Dinucleotide) is reduced to NADH (Nicotinamide Adenine Dinucleotide Hydrogen).
4. Additionally, a molecule of CO2 (carbon dioxide) is released as a byproduct of the reaction.
In summary, the conversion of alpha-ketoglutarate to succinyl-CoA involves the reaction with coenzyme A, the reduction of NAD+ to NADH, and the release of CO2, all facilitated by the alpha-ketoglutarate dehydrogenase complex enzyme.

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Which organelle would be relatively more abundant in brown adipose tissue than in typical white adipose tissue?
a. mitochondria
b. rough ER
c. golgi
d. lysosome

Answers

Mitochondria organelle would be relatively more abundant in brown adipose tissue than in typical white adipose tissue

Brown adipose tissue (BAT) is a specialized type of adipose tissue that contains a high number of mitochondria compared to typical white adipose tissue (WAT).

Mitochondria are the organelles responsible for generating ATP through oxidative phosphorylation, and in BAT, they play a key role in the process of thermogenesis, which generates heat by uncoupling mitochondrial respiration from ATP production. BAT is characterized by the presence of multilocular lipid droplets and a higher number of capillaries compared to WAT.

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during the Jurassic period the ancestor to all mammals was...

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During the Jurassic period, the ancestor to all mammals was a group of small, shrew-like creatures called the mammaliaforms.

Where are mammals descended from?

All mammals descended from a group of tiny, shrew-like organisms known as mammaliaforms during the Jurassic period. Although these creatures were relatively little and unnoticeable, they possessed certain crucial traits that would later be enhanced and developed by genuine mammals, such as hair, mammary glands, and the capacity to control their internal body temperature.

These early mammaliaforms developed into a variety of species over time, some of which are now among the biggest and most diversified animals on Earth.

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What is meant by "Disturbance shapes and is shaped by landscape heterogeneity"?
Describe an example associated with fires in Yellowstone National Park.

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"Disturbance shapes and is shaped by landscape heterogeneity" means that disturbances, such as natural disasters or human activities, can both influence and be influenced by the variability of different elements within a landscape. an example associated with fires in Yellowstone National Park is various vegetation types, topography, and climate,

Landscape heterogeneity refers to the diversity of habitat types, vegetation, and landforms in an ecosystem. An example associated with fires in Yellowstone National Park can help illustrate this concept. In 1988, a series of large wildfires swept through the park, affecting approximately 36% of its area, the heterogeneous landscape of Yellowstone, including various vegetation types, topography, and climate, shaped the spread and intensity of these fires. In some areas, the diverse vegetation helped slow the fire's progress, while in others, the dense forests and dry conditions facilitated its spread.

Conversely, the fires also shaped the landscape heterogeneity of Yellowstone, the intense fires created a mosaic of burned and unburned areas, promoting habitat diversity and species recolonization. Over time, the landscape has been transformed as new vegetation has grown, resulting in an altered distribution of plant communities, wildlife habitats, and ecosystem processes. This example demonstrates the interconnected relationship between disturbance and landscape heterogeneity, highlighting the dynamic nature of ecosystems.

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Name 6 principles used in the creation of preserves which have come out of a better understanding of the effects of fragmentation.

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The six principles used in the creation of preserves that have come out of a better understanding of the effects of fragmentation are as follows: Size and shape, Connectivity, Buffer zones, Habitat management, Monitoring, and Adaptive management.

1. Size and shape: The size and shape of the preserve should be determined by the size and shape of the natural habitat being preserved. This ensures that the preserve is large enough to support a viable population of species.

2. Connectivity: The preserve should be connected to other natural areas to allow for the movement of species between them. This helps to maintain genetic diversity and prevents inbreeding.

3. Buffer zones: Buffer zones should be established around the preserve to protect it from external threats such as pollution or development.

4. Habitat management: The habitat within the preserve should be managed to maintain or improve its quality, which helps to support a healthy population of species.

5. Monitoring: The preserve should be regularly monitored to ensure that it is meeting its conservation goals and to identify any issues that need to be addressed.

6. Adaptive management: The management of the preserve should be adaptive, meaning that it should be adjusted as new information becomes available. This ensures that the preserve continues to meet its conservation goals over time.

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Kidneys provide osmoregulation for the body. Consumption of which nutrient creates the greatest need for osmoregulation?

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The body's osmoregulation is provided by the kidneys. The biggest need for osmoregulation results from protein food ingestion. Option d is Correct.

Osmoregulation is the process by which the kidneys control the osmotic pressure of a mammal's blood through significant filtration and purification. The kidneys filter all of the blood in the human body several times each day.

To carry out this task, these organs need roughly 25% of the oxygen taken in through the lungs. In vertebrates, the kidneys, which resemble beans, have various crucial regulatory tasks. The kidneys assist in regulating the blood's water and salt content in addition to eliminating urea and uric acid from it. We refer to this process as osmoregulation. Option d is Correct.

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Correct Question:

Kidneys provide osmoregulation for the body. consumption of which nutrient creates the greatest need for osmoregulation?

a. cellulose

b. fat

c. oil

d. protein

a bacterial species that cannot tolerate the presence of oxygen and will only grow in the absence of oxygen is classified as

Answers

A bacterial species that cannot tolerate the presence of oxygen and will only grow in the absence of oxygen is classified as an obligate anaerobe.

Microorganisms known as obligatory anaerobes require an oxygen-free environment in order to function properly since they cannot survive in the presence of oxygen.

This means that for them to develop, they need to be in an environment without oxygen, such the sediments of deep-sea hydrothermal vents or the gastrointestinal tracts of mammals.

In addition to soil, humans' and animals' digestive systems include obligatory anaerobes. They must employ alternative metabolic routes, such fermentation, because they cannot thrive in an oxygenated environment.

Due to their special capacity to endure in an atmosphere devoid of oxygen, obligatory anaerobes have been investigated for their possible use in biotechnology and medicine.

Complete Question:

A bacterial species that cannot tolerate the presence of oxygen and will only grow in the absence of oxygen is classified as _________.

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How is damage to DNA bases recognized by the cellular machineries that repair them?

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There are several cellular machineries that are responsible for repairing the damage to DNA bases. These machineries have specific mechanisms to recognize the damaged DNA bases. The most common form of DNA damage is caused by oxidation, alkylation, or exposure to radiation. When these types of damage occur, it may cause abnormal chemical bonds and structural changes to the DNA molecule. One mechanism for recognizing this damage is through the process of base excision repair (BER), which is initiated by a glycosylase enzyme that recognizes and removes the damaged base from the sugar-phosphate backbone of the DNA. Another mechanism for recognizing DNA damage is through nucleotide excision repair (NER), which is triggered by bulky and helix-distorting DNA damage. The NER machinery identifies such damage and removes the affected DNA segment, which is then replaced with a new sequence. Ultimately, the recognition of DNA damage is based on the altered chemical structure of the DNA that results from the damage. The cellular machinery involved in DNA repair recognizes and responds to these altered structures in order to initiate the repair process.

What are some differences between a food chain, web, or energy pyramid?

Answers

Food chains, webs, and energy pyramids are all methods used to represent the flow of energy and nutrients in an ecosystem. A food chain is a simple linear representation of the transfer of energy from one organism to another. It typically starts with a primary producer and ends with a top predator.

A food web, on the other hand, is a more complex representation of interconnected food chains. It shows the feeding relationships among many different species in an ecosystem.

Finally, an energy pyramid represents the amount of energy that flows through each level of a food chain or web. It is typically shaped like a pyramid because the amount of energy decreases as you move up the trophic levels.

Overall, food chains are simple and straightforward, while food webs and energy pyramids are more complex and show the interconnectivity of species and energy flow in an ecosystem.

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a friend is changing the tire on her car, and the jack breaks. her hand is caught under the car. a passerby notices, runs over, and lifts the car off her hand. which type of intercellular signal has responded?

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The situation described in the question is an example of a physiological response to an emergency situation, specifically the fight-or-flight response.

In this case, the passerby noticed the emergency and reacted by lifting the car off of the friend's hand. This response is not mediated by intercellular signaling, but rather by the nervous system and the release of hormones such as adrenaline and cortisol. These hormones prepare the body for intense physical activity and help to increase strength and energy in order to respond to a perceived threat.

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What shape is the sheep's pupil? How does it compare to the shape of the human pupil?

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The pupil of a sheep has a horizontal shape, which describes it as being rectangular in appearance and lengthened horizontally.

It is believed that a sheep's pupil shape is a grazing behavior adaptation. Sheep are herbivores and spend a lot of time grazing on the ground, which necessitates good peripheral vision for predator detection. The horizontal shape of their pupil gives them a wider horizontal field of vision, which makes it easier for them to spot predators.

As predators with forward-facing eyes, humans need to have good binocular vision and depth perception. Our pupils rounded shape makes it easier for light to enter the eye and enables us to focus on objects at various distances.

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what does the corpus luteum degrade into in the case of no pregnancy?

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The corpus luteum is a temporary endocrine gland that forms in the ovary after ovulation.

Its primary function is to produce progesterone, a hormone that prepares the uterus for pregnancy. If fertilization and implantation of an embryo do not occur, the corpus luteum will eventually degrade or regress.

As the corpus luteum regresses, it undergoes a process called luteolysis. During this process, the cells of the corpus luteum begin to break down and the blood vessels that supply it begin to shrink. This leads to a decrease in progesterone production.

Ultimately, the corpus luteum will degenerate into a small scar-like structure called the corpus albicans, which is composed of fibrous tissue. The corpus albicans has no endocrine function and remains in the ovary indefinitely. It is a normal part of the ovarian cycle and is typically reabsorbed by the body over time.

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To make organic fertilizer by composting, you should not include ________.
A) crop residues
B) dead leaves, weeds
C) animal manures
D) shredded plastic and metals
E) wood chips

Answers

To make organic fertilizer by composting, you should not include Shredded plastic and metals.

What is fertilizer?

Fertilizer is a material that is added to soil to provide essential plant nutrients and improve crop yields. It is typically composed of macronutrients such as nitrogen, phosphorus, and potassium, as well as other micronutrients that are beneficial to plant growth. Fertilizers can be organic or inorganic, and they are applied to the soil in a variety of ways. Organic fertilizers are derived from plant, animal, and mineral sources, while inorganic fertilizers are composed of chemical compounds. Fertilizers are essential for both agricultural and home gardening purposes, as they provide essential nutrients to crops and plants that are not naturally present in the soil. Fertilizers help to enrich the soil and promote healthy, vigorous plant growth.

Therefore, the correct option is A.
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alpha toxins essentially poke holes in a host cell's membrane. hemolytic toxins are a type of alpha toxin. which type of hemolytic organism can breakdown both the red blood cells and the hemoglobin contained with in?

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Hemolytic toxins specifically target red blood cells, causing them to rupture and release their contents, including hemoglobin. One type of hemolytic organism that can break down both red blood cells and hemoglobin is the bacterium Streptococcus pyogenes.

S. pyogenes produces streptolysin O and streptolysin S, which are hemolytic toxins. These toxins act by forming pores in the cell membranes of red blood cells, leading to cell lysis and the release of hemoglobin.

Additionally, S. pyogenes produces an enzyme called streptokinase, which can activate plasminogen to form plasmin. Plasmin is an enzyme that can break down fibrin clots and has the ability to degrade hemoglobin.

By disrupting red blood cells and degrading hemoglobin, S. pyogenes can acquire essential nutrients, such as iron, for its growth and survival. This dual-action mechanism of S. pyogenes makes it a notable example of a hemolytic organism capable of breaking down both red blood cells and the hemoglobin contained within.

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i am trying to determine if two species of pine trees have significantly different lengths of pine needles, and i gather one needle each from three trees from each species to measure the pine needle lengths. how many biological replicates for each species does my experiment have?

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The number of biological replicates for each species in your experiment is 3

How many biological replicates for each species does my experiment have?

In your experiment to determine if two species of pine trees have significantly different lengths of pine needles, you have collected one needle each from three trees from each species.

In this case, the number of biological replicates for each species in your experiment is 3, since you gathered data from three individual trees for each species.

In biology, the biggest group of organisms in which any two individuals of the proper sexes or mating types can generate fertile offspring, often by sexual reproduction, is referred to as a species.

It is a unit of biodiversity as well as the fundamental classification and taxonomic rank of an organism.

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during a squat, which muscle group isometrically contracts to prevent unnecessary thigh movement in the frontal plane?

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The hip abductor muscles isometrically contract to prevent unnecessary thigh movement in the frontal plane during a squat.

During a squat, the hip abductor muscles isometrically contract to prevent unnecessary thigh movement in the frontal plane.

These muscles include the gluteus medius, gluteus minimus, and tensor fasciae latae, which are located on the lateral side of the hip joint. These muscles work to stabilize the pelvis and prevent it from tilting toward the unsupported side, which could cause the knee to collapse inward and compromise the alignment of the lower body during the squat.By maintaining proper alignment, the hip abductor muscles help to distribute the load evenly across the lower body and reduce the risk of injury.

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the active accumulation of fluid within body cavities caused by infections, malignancies, or inflammation damaging the vascular wall is known as a/an: a. transudate b. exudate c. ejaculate d. effusion

Answers

The active accumulation of fluid within body cavities caused by infections, malignancies, or inflammation damaging the vascular wall is known as an (d) effusion.

Effusion is a pathological condition that is caused by a variety of factors including infections, cancers, or inflammation. The fluid that accumulates in the body cavities can be either a transudate or an exudate. A transudate is a clear and watery fluid that is caused by an imbalance in the pressure between the blood vessels and the surrounding tissues. On the other hand, an exudate is a fluid that contains white blood cells, proteins, and other cellular debris that is caused by inflammation or damage to the blood vessels.

An effusion can occur in various parts of the body, including the lungs, heart, abdomen, and joints. The symptoms of an effusion depend on the location and the severity of the condition. Some common symptoms include pain, swelling, and difficulty breathing.

The treatment for an effusion depends on the underlying cause. If the effusion is caused by an infection, antibiotics may be prescribed. If it is caused by inflammation, anti-inflammatory medications may be recommended. In severe cases, the fluid may need to be drained using a needle or tube. It is important to seek medical attention if you experience any symptoms of an effusion, as this condition can be potentially life-threatening if left untreated.

Therefore, the correct answer is Option D Effusion.

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Which is not a disadvantage of an emulsifiable concentrate pesticide?
A. Higher phytotoxicity hazard
B. May be easily absorbed through human and animal skin
C. Needs constant agitation
D. Flammable

Answers

The answer is B. May be easily absorbed through human and animal skin is not a disadvantage of an emulsifiable concentrate pesticide.

Emulsifiable concentrate pesticides have several potential disadvantages, including a higher phytotoxicity hazard, the need for constant agitation to maintain the emulsion, and flammability hazards. However, they are generally not easily absorbed through human and animal skin since they are diluted in water before application.It's important to note that all pesticides, including emulsifiable concentrates, have potential health and environmental risks associated with their use, and should be handled with care and according to label instructions.

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The genes for what type of sugar metabolism are constituitively expressed?

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The GAL genes of sugar metabolism remain constitutively expressed.

The GAL genes are involved in the utilization of sugar. These genes are in charge of the oxidation of galactose, a molecule comparable to glucose. Certain yeast strains express the GAL pathway constitutively. Three Leloir genes' enzyme products operate sequentially to turn galactose and glucose-6-phosphate, which enter glycolysis.

This process is critical for cell energy production. Sugar metabolism is a mechanism through which sugars are broken down and converted into energy in cellular. The galactose metabolic (GAL) gene is a major player in sugar metabolism. GAL genes are expressed intrinsically and play an important role in galactose to glucose-6-phosphate conversion for generating electricity in cells.

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Justify the statement.The presence of a vertebral column is with respect to all vertebrates [first term], but is with respect to all chordates [second term].

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The statement "The presence of a vertebral column is with respect to all vertebrates, but is with respect to all chordates" is justified by the fact that the vertebral column, also known as the backbone, is a defining characteristic of vertebrates.

All animals belonging to the phylum Chordata share a similar developmental pattern, with a notochord present in the early embryonic stage, which later transforms into a vertebral column in vertebrates.

However, not all chordates have a true vertebral column. In some non-vertebrate chordates, such as tunicates and lancelets, the notochord remains as the main axial support structure throughout the organism's life, without being replaced by a bony vertebral column.

On the other hand, all animals that have a vertebral column belong to the subphylum Vertebrata within the phylum Chordata. The vertebral column is a key characteristic that distinguishes vertebrates from other chordates and other animal phyla. It provides support for the body, protects the spinal cord, and allows for greater mobility and movement.

The presence of a vertebral column is a defining feature of all vertebrates, it is not present in all chordates. Therefore, the statement is justified.

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Amino acid catabolism releases nitrogen in the form of ammonia. In the liver, the urea cycle prepares ammonia for excretion. Which amino acid could undergo deamidation to produce ammonia for the urea cycle?

Answers

Deamidation is the process of removing an amine group (-NH2) from an amino acid. This process releases ammonia (NH3), which can then be used in the urea cycle for excretion. One amino acid that can undergo deamidation to produce ammonia is glutamine.

Glutamine is an amino acid that is commonly found in proteins and can be obtained from the diet or synthesized in the body from other amino acids. In the liver, glutamine can undergo deamidation by the enzyme glutaminase, which removes the amine group to produce glutamate and ammonia.

The ammonia produced from the deamidation of glutamine can then enter the urea cycle, where it is combined with carbon dioxide to form urea, a less toxic compound that can be excreted by the kidneys. The urea cycle is an important metabolic pathway for the elimination of excess nitrogen from the body, and it helps to maintain the proper balance of nitrogen-containing compounds in the bloodstream.

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What form is Occupational Exposures of Reproductive or Developmental Concern - Supervisor

Answers

The distinguishing characteristics of the lophotrochozoan clade include a body plan consisting of a foot, visceral mass, and mantle, a lophophore or trochophore larval stage, protostome development, and the absence of pharyngeal gill slits.

Lophotrochozoa is a clade of animals that includes a diverse range of organisms, such as flatworms, annelids, mollusks, and brachiopods. There are several distinguishing characteristics of this clade:

Body plan: Lophotrochozoans have a body plan consisting of a foot, visceral mass, and mantle. The foot is used for locomotion, the visceral mass contains the organs, and the mantle is a sheet of tissue that covers the visceral mass and often secretes a protective shell.Lophophore or trochophore larval stage: Many lophotrochozoans have a lophophore, a crown of ciliated tentacles used for filter feeding, or a distinct trochophore larval stage, which has a characteristic ring of cilia.Protostome development: Lophotrochozoans are protostomes, which means that during embryonic development, the first opening that forms become the mouth, and the anus forms later.Pharyngeal gill slits: Lophotrochozoans do not have pharyngeal gill slits. This is a characteristic of the deuterostome clade, which includes echinoderms and chordates.

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If there were three sets of homologous chromosomes in the cell, how many possible arrangements would there be for the tetrads in late prophase 1?

Answers

There were to be 83 different configurations if the cell included three sets of identical chromosomes. 8,388,608 genetic combinations are available as a result of independent assortment.

What other name is given to the homologous tetrads during prophase 1?

Homologous chromosomes join together to produce tetrads during prophase. Tetrad creation is also referred to as synapsis. Tetrads play a crucial role in the process of crossing over, which occurs when homologous chromosomes exchange DNA sequences.

In meiosis 1, how numerous tetrads are formed?

Sex cells in humans include 23 chromosomes. Therefore, during meiosis, 23 tetrads develop. Condensed identical chromosomes meet up to form tetrads, which are made up of two pairs, during the initial phase of meiosis .

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For Most Probable Number (MPN) assay what determines a positive result in the LTB, BGLB and EC tubes?

Answers

A statistical method for determining the number of microorganisms in a sample is the Most Probable Number (MPN) assay.

This method involves the use of a series of tubes containing different concentrations of a growth medium, such as Lactose broth (LTB), Brilliant Green Lactose Bile broth (BGLB), and E. coli broth (EC). The determination of a positive result in these tubes is based on the detection of microbial growth, which can be observed by turbidity or the production of gas. In LTB, a positive result is indicated by acid production, which is detected by a pH indicator.

In BGLB, a positive result is indicated by the presence of gas, which is detected by the displacement of a Durham tube. In EC, a positive result is indicated by the presence of gas, which is also detected by the displacement of a Durham tube. The MPN assay is a useful tool in microbiology for quantifying microbial populations in samples where direct enumeration is difficult or impractical.

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Single Choice3) When should you say Thank you' to Guests?O When you ask your Guest to do something.O When they give you something like payment.When a Guest asks you a question.When you ask for their payment. 2a. Find the volume of the model of Saturn.2Eliza made sphere-shapedmodels of the Earth and Saturnout of playdough for a scienceproject. The model of Earth hasa diameter of 4.8 cm and themodel of Saturn has a diameterof 45.6 cm. An older adult client fractured a hip after a fall in the home and surgical correction is not an option due to comorbid factors. The client states to the nurse, "How will I ever get better? Which response by the nurse is best? The REHS did something that they knew was unlawful and they did it in an unapproved way Please I need help with this discussion in 300 words or more: There is currently a lot of written about the student debt crisis often pointed out is that the huge burden ( For many) of loan repayment will seriously affected ones ability to take advantage of opportunities that used to be available to college graduates. Do you think that this is, in fact, a serious crisis? Is this enormous debt ( $1.3 trillion) a factor that reinforces inequality? Are you concerned about your personal life chances? If you don't want to share that information.) Most common complication of vesicoureteral reflux what would cause a rightward shift of the oxygen dissociation curve? What does the game of hunting the boar on the second day show? (Fitt III) The sample size needed for a study increases when:a. the alpha level is increased from .01 to .05. b. the number of variables in the study increases. c. a one-tailed versus a two-tailed statistical test is used. d. the sensitivity of the instruments used is high. In the 1972 empirical study by Black, Jensen, and Scholes, they found that the estimatedslope of the security market line was _______ what the CAPM would predict.A. higher thanB. equal toC. less thanD. twice as much asE. More information is required to answer this question The child is prepared for procedures using a variety of techniques taking into consideration the child's developmental age, coping abilities, and previous experience. Staring spells + automatisms + post-ictal confusion = A recent study of 182 people showed they checked their socialmedia (M) an average of 56.4 times a week and sd(M)=38.9.Calculatethe test t statistic for the following hypothesis:(3 significantdigits in final answer)H0: M = 63.4Ha: M 63.4 the population standard deviation is 1.88. Unfortunately, I forgot to write down the sample size, n, but I know the sample mean has a normal sampling I distribution and the 96% CI has a margin of error of M = 0.704927685875988. What must the sample size have been? What is ironic in the way that Edward and the farm-wife treat each other? Describes the ways in which the wealthiest societies continue to exercise global dominance over the rest, albeit through more market-mediated means today Goal INR in patients with prosthetic valves What type of artifact causes a reflections to be placed at an incorrect depth ?a lateral incertitudeb. shadowingc. range ambiguityd. indeterminate relaxation tariq bought a pair of sunglasses online for $37. he used a coupon code to get a 20% discount. the website also applied a 20% processing fee to the price after the discount. how much did tariq pay, in the end? round to the nearest cent. Two untethered astronauts on a space walk decide to take a break and play catch with a baseball. Describe what happens as the game of catch progresses. (9)